Question Number Selected Option
1 B
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 D
17 D
18 A
19 A
20 C
Saturday, April 11, 2009
Dataware House
How a data warehouse can support OLTP? Briefly explain.
Online transaction processing (OLTP) is the gathering, processing and updating of input information. In other words, OLTP is gathering and processing of transactional information and updating existing information to reflect transactional changes. Database management systems are the technology tools that directly support OLTP which are most often referred to as operational databases. The valuable information stored in these transactional databases forms the basis for business intelligence. The data contained in these databases, which is in raw form, is highly normalized to reduce data duplication and increase efficiency of the transactions.
A data warehouse is a special form of a database that contains information gathered from operational (or transactional) databases for the purpose of supporting the decision-making process. The data stored in these databases, which is in summarized form instead of its raw form, is lightly normalized or even not-normalized at all increasing the duplication.
Also the OLTP databases are highly affected by the front-end applications developed by some programmer or developer so provide only the fixed type of data access and very little flexibility in forming the queries limiting the ability to retrieve the intelligence stored in database thus if the decision maker has to use the OLTP system for decision making, he is forced to use only those queries that have been pre-written thus the process of decision making is driven not by the decision maker. Data warehouse, on the other hand, coupled with the OLAP, provides the interactivity between the decision support system and decision maker which is required.
So, typically, a data warehouse and OLTP systems works separately from each other and even reside on separate server machines.
Do you agree that OLAP is a Data Warehouse tool? Explain.
Online analytical processing, or OLAP (also known as multidimensional analysis), is actually an approach to on-line retrieval and analysis of data to reveal business trends and statistics not directly visible in the data directly retrieved from a data warehouse but not a tool itself. However, this term is also used to describe the tools that provide this functionality. The typical applications of OLAP are in business reporting for sales, marketing, management reporting, business process management, budgeting and forecasting, financial reporting as well as other similar areas.
Different vendors have provided multidimensional OLAP for general ledger (G/L) operations. In your opinion an organization should use these packages or try to build an in-house solution? What are advantages / drawbacks of using these packages?
In my opinion, the ready-made OLAP solutions provide a limited integration level with the existing business process. However, it can suffice the purpose for very small or small scale applications but as the business grows, there are many growing needs and versatile requirements for the extraction of business intelligence stored in the data warehouse which these ready-made solutions fail to provide. A custom-made solution, on the other hand is based on the exact requirement for that specific business process and is flexible enough to provide the extensibility without compromising other factors like efficiency, interpretability etc. These ready-made OLAP solutions, however, have the benefit of minimum requirement for the technical services which are required otherwise to build it from scratch.
The integration of any OLAP solution to a General Ledger is critical to the reporting and operational effectiveness of the solution for that business. Many General Ledger manufactures having get this wrong and their clients end up wasting their valuable resources which, in turn, results in clients developing and integrating their own OLAP reporting solutions
Online transaction processing (OLTP) is the gathering, processing and updating of input information. In other words, OLTP is gathering and processing of transactional information and updating existing information to reflect transactional changes. Database management systems are the technology tools that directly support OLTP which are most often referred to as operational databases. The valuable information stored in these transactional databases forms the basis for business intelligence. The data contained in these databases, which is in raw form, is highly normalized to reduce data duplication and increase efficiency of the transactions.
A data warehouse is a special form of a database that contains information gathered from operational (or transactional) databases for the purpose of supporting the decision-making process. The data stored in these databases, which is in summarized form instead of its raw form, is lightly normalized or even not-normalized at all increasing the duplication.
Also the OLTP databases are highly affected by the front-end applications developed by some programmer or developer so provide only the fixed type of data access and very little flexibility in forming the queries limiting the ability to retrieve the intelligence stored in database thus if the decision maker has to use the OLTP system for decision making, he is forced to use only those queries that have been pre-written thus the process of decision making is driven not by the decision maker. Data warehouse, on the other hand, coupled with the OLAP, provides the interactivity between the decision support system and decision maker which is required.
So, typically, a data warehouse and OLTP systems works separately from each other and even reside on separate server machines.
Do you agree that OLAP is a Data Warehouse tool? Explain.
Online analytical processing, or OLAP (also known as multidimensional analysis), is actually an approach to on-line retrieval and analysis of data to reveal business trends and statistics not directly visible in the data directly retrieved from a data warehouse but not a tool itself. However, this term is also used to describe the tools that provide this functionality. The typical applications of OLAP are in business reporting for sales, marketing, management reporting, business process management, budgeting and forecasting, financial reporting as well as other similar areas.
Different vendors have provided multidimensional OLAP for general ledger (G/L) operations. In your opinion an organization should use these packages or try to build an in-house solution? What are advantages / drawbacks of using these packages?
In my opinion, the ready-made OLAP solutions provide a limited integration level with the existing business process. However, it can suffice the purpose for very small or small scale applications but as the business grows, there are many growing needs and versatile requirements for the extraction of business intelligence stored in the data warehouse which these ready-made solutions fail to provide. A custom-made solution, on the other hand is based on the exact requirement for that specific business process and is flexible enough to provide the extensibility without compromising other factors like efficiency, interpretability etc. These ready-made OLAP solutions, however, have the benefit of minimum requirement for the technical services which are required otherwise to build it from scratch.
The integration of any OLAP solution to a General Ledger is critical to the reporting and operational effectiveness of the solution for that business. Many General Ledger manufactures having get this wrong and their clients end up wasting their valuable resources which, in turn, results in clients developing and integrating their own OLAP reporting solutions
Financial Management (Mgt-101) Solution
Question Number Selected Option
1 B
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 D
17 D
18 A
19 A
20 C
1 B
2 D
3 B
4 A
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 D
17 D
18 A
19 A
20 C
Dataware House
How a data warehouse can support OLTP? Briefly explain.
Online transaction processing (OLTP) is the gathering, processing and updating of input information. In other words, OLTP is gathering and processing of transactional information and updating existing information to reflect transactional changes. Database management systems are the technology tools that directly support OLTP which are most often referred to as operational databases. The valuable information stored in these transactional databases forms the basis for business intelligence. The data contained in these databases, which is in raw form, is highly normalized to reduce data duplication and increase efficiency of the transactions.
A data warehouse is a special form of a database that contains information gathered from operational (or transactional) databases for the purpose of supporting the decision-making process. The data stored in these databases, which is in summarized form instead of its raw form, is lightly normalized or even not-normalized at all increasing the duplication.
Also the OLTP databases are highly affected by the front-end applications developed by some programmer or developer so provide only the fixed type of data access and very little flexibility in forming the queries limiting the ability to retrieve the intelligence stored in database thus if the decision maker has to use the OLTP system for decision making, he is forced to use only those queries that have been pre-written thus the process of decision making is driven not by the decision maker. Data warehouse, on the other hand, coupled with the OLAP, provides the interactivity between the decision support system and decision maker which is required.
So, typically, a data warehouse and OLTP systems works separately from each other and even reside on separate server machines.
Do you agree that OLAP is a Data Warehouse tool? Explain.
Online analytical processing, or OLAP (also known as multidimensional analysis), is actually an approach to on-line retrieval and analysis of data to reveal business trends and statistics not directly visible in the data directly retrieved from a data warehouse but not a tool itself. However, this term is also used to describe the tools that provide this functionality. The typical applications of OLAP are in business reporting for sales, marketing, management reporting, business process management, budgeting and forecasting, financial reporting as well as other similar areas.
Different vendors have provided multidimensional OLAP for general ledger (G/L) operations. In your opinion an organization should use these packages or try to build an in-house solution? What are advantages / drawbacks of using these packages?
In my opinion, the ready-made OLAP solutions provide a limited integration level with the existing business process. However, it can suffice the purpose for very small or small scale applications but as the business grows, there are many growing needs and versatile requirements for the extraction of business intelligence stored in the data warehouse which these ready-made solutions fail to provide. A custom-made solution, on the other hand is based on the exact requirement for that specific business process and is flexible enough to provide the extensibility without compromising other factors like efficiency, interpretability etc. These ready-made OLAP solutions, however, have the benefit of minimum requirement for the technical services which are required otherwise to build it from scratch.
The integration of any OLAP solution to a General Ledger is critical to the reporting and operational effectiveness of the solution for that business. Many General Ledger manufactures having get this wrong and their clients end up wasting their valuable resources which, in turn, results in clients developing and integrating their own OLAP reporting solutions
Online transaction processing (OLTP) is the gathering, processing and updating of input information. In other words, OLTP is gathering and processing of transactional information and updating existing information to reflect transactional changes. Database management systems are the technology tools that directly support OLTP which are most often referred to as operational databases. The valuable information stored in these transactional databases forms the basis for business intelligence. The data contained in these databases, which is in raw form, is highly normalized to reduce data duplication and increase efficiency of the transactions.
A data warehouse is a special form of a database that contains information gathered from operational (or transactional) databases for the purpose of supporting the decision-making process. The data stored in these databases, which is in summarized form instead of its raw form, is lightly normalized or even not-normalized at all increasing the duplication.
Also the OLTP databases are highly affected by the front-end applications developed by some programmer or developer so provide only the fixed type of data access and very little flexibility in forming the queries limiting the ability to retrieve the intelligence stored in database thus if the decision maker has to use the OLTP system for decision making, he is forced to use only those queries that have been pre-written thus the process of decision making is driven not by the decision maker. Data warehouse, on the other hand, coupled with the OLAP, provides the interactivity between the decision support system and decision maker which is required.
So, typically, a data warehouse and OLTP systems works separately from each other and even reside on separate server machines.
Do you agree that OLAP is a Data Warehouse tool? Explain.
Online analytical processing, or OLAP (also known as multidimensional analysis), is actually an approach to on-line retrieval and analysis of data to reveal business trends and statistics not directly visible in the data directly retrieved from a data warehouse but not a tool itself. However, this term is also used to describe the tools that provide this functionality. The typical applications of OLAP are in business reporting for sales, marketing, management reporting, business process management, budgeting and forecasting, financial reporting as well as other similar areas.
Different vendors have provided multidimensional OLAP for general ledger (G/L) operations. In your opinion an organization should use these packages or try to build an in-house solution? What are advantages / drawbacks of using these packages?
In my opinion, the ready-made OLAP solutions provide a limited integration level with the existing business process. However, it can suffice the purpose for very small or small scale applications but as the business grows, there are many growing needs and versatile requirements for the extraction of business intelligence stored in the data warehouse which these ready-made solutions fail to provide. A custom-made solution, on the other hand is based on the exact requirement for that specific business process and is flexible enough to provide the extensibility without compromising other factors like efficiency, interpretability etc. These ready-made OLAP solutions, however, have the benefit of minimum requirement for the technical services which are required otherwise to build it from scratch.
The integration of any OLAP solution to a General Ledger is critical to the reporting and operational effectiveness of the solution for that business. Many General Ledger manufactures having get this wrong and their clients end up wasting their valuable resources which, in turn, results in clients developing and integrating their own OLAP reporting solutions
Leadership and Quality Mgt
Question # Selected Option
1... A
2... B
3... C
4... A
5... A
6... C
7... -
8... D )
9... C
10... A
1... A
2... B
3... C
4... A
5... A
6... C
7... -
8... D )
9... C
10... A
Leadership and Quality Mgt
Question # Selected Option
1... A
2... B
3... C
4... A
5... A
6... C
7... -
8... D )
9... C
10... A
1... A
2... B
3... C
4... A
5... A
6... C
7... -
8... D )
9... C
10... A
Financial Management (Mgt-101) Solution
1-d
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
Financial Management (Mgt-101) Solution
1-d
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
Friday, April 10, 2009
Mkt-621 Solution
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
1) The process of translating thought into a symbolic form is known as ___________.
A- Encoding
B- Feedback
C- Noise
D- Decoding
2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives?
A- Objectives must specify the amount of change.
B- Objectives must be stated in terms of profits.
C- Objectives must be realistic.
D- Objectives must be clear and in writing.
3) In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
A- Lifestyle
B- Mood or imagery
C- Slice of life
D- Personality symbol
4) Which one of the following types of advertising promotes products, services or ideas with the expectation of making a profit?
A- Product advertising
B- Non-commercial advertising
C- Action advertising
D- Commercial advertising
5) Which one of the following refers to number of times the audience is exposed to an advertisement message?
A- Frequency
B- Reach
C- Scheduling
D- Coverage
6) Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A- Publicity
B- Personal selling
C- Sales Promotion
D- Public relations
7) Which one of the following is included in classification of advertisement?
A- Perceptible
B- Imperceptible
C- Target Audience
D- Induced
8) Which one of the following is NOT an ingredient of a Promotion mix?
A- Direct marketing
B- Sales promotion
C- Advertising
D- Warehousing
9) Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
A- Decline stage
B- Introduction stage
C- Growth stage
D- Maturity stage
10) A(n) _______________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service.
A- Product feature
B- Brand
C- Sponsorship
D- Logo
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
1) The process of translating thought into a symbolic form is known as ___________.
A- Encoding
B- Feedback
C- Noise
D- Decoding
2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives?
A- Objectives must specify the amount of change.
B- Objectives must be stated in terms of profits.
C- Objectives must be realistic.
D- Objectives must be clear and in writing.
3) In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
A- Lifestyle
B- Mood or imagery
C- Slice of life
D- Personality symbol
4) Which one of the following types of advertising promotes products, services or ideas with the expectation of making a profit?
A- Product advertising
B- Non-commercial advertising
C- Action advertising
D- Commercial advertising
5) Which one of the following refers to number of times the audience is exposed to an advertisement message?
A- Frequency
B- Reach
C- Scheduling
D- Coverage
6) Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A- Publicity
B- Personal selling
C- Sales Promotion
D- Public relations
7) Which one of the following is included in classification of advertisement?
A- Perceptible
B- Imperceptible
C- Target Audience
D- Induced
8) Which one of the following is NOT an ingredient of a Promotion mix?
A- Direct marketing
B- Sales promotion
C- Advertising
D- Warehousing
9) Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
A- Decline stage
B- Introduction stage
C- Growth stage
D- Maturity stage
10) A(n) _______________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service.
A- Product feature
B- Brand
C- Sponsorship
D- Logo
Mkt-621 Solution
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
1) The process of translating thought into a symbolic form is known as ___________.
A- Encoding
B- Feedback
C- Noise
D- Decoding
2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives?
A- Objectives must specify the amount of change.
B- Objectives must be stated in terms of profits.
C- Objectives must be realistic.
D- Objectives must be clear and in writing.
3) In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
A- Lifestyle
B- Mood or imagery
C- Slice of life
D- Personality symbol
4) Which one of the following types of advertising promotes products, services or ideas with the expectation of making a profit?
A- Product advertising
B- Non-commercial advertising
C- Action advertising
D- Commercial advertising
5) Which one of the following refers to number of times the audience is exposed to an advertisement message?
A- Frequency
B- Reach
C- Scheduling
D- Coverage
6) Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A- Publicity
B- Personal selling
C- Sales Promotion
D- Public relations
7) Which one of the following is included in classification of advertisement?
A- Perceptible
B- Imperceptible
C- Target Audience
D- Induced
8) Which one of the following is NOT an ingredient of a Promotion mix?
A- Direct marketing
B- Sales promotion
C- Advertising
D- Warehousing
9) Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
A- Decline stage
B- Introduction stage
C- Growth stage
D- Maturity stage
10) A(n) _______________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service.
A- Product feature
B- Brand
C- Sponsorship
D- Logo
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
1) The process of translating thought into a symbolic form is known as ___________.
A- Encoding
B- Feedback
C- Noise
D- Decoding
2) Which of the following is NOT a requirement for setting advertising objectives?
A- Objectives must specify the amount of change.
B- Objectives must be stated in terms of profits.
C- Objectives must be realistic.
D- Objectives must be clear and in writing.
3) In terms of execution styles, a family seated at the dinner table enjoying the advertised product would be an example of which of the following types of advertising?
A- Lifestyle
B- Mood or imagery
C- Slice of life
D- Personality symbol
4) Which one of the following types of advertising promotes products, services or ideas with the expectation of making a profit?
A- Product advertising
B- Non-commercial advertising
C- Action advertising
D- Commercial advertising
5) Which one of the following refers to number of times the audience is exposed to an advertisement message?
A- Frequency
B- Reach
C- Scheduling
D- Coverage
6) Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A- Publicity
B- Personal selling
C- Sales Promotion
D- Public relations
7) Which one of the following is included in classification of advertisement?
A- Perceptible
B- Imperceptible
C- Target Audience
D- Induced
8) Which one of the following is NOT an ingredient of a Promotion mix?
A- Direct marketing
B- Sales promotion
C- Advertising
D- Warehousing
9) Technological advances, shifts in consumer tastes, and increased competition, all of which reduce demand for a product are typical of which stage in the PLC?
A- Decline stage
B- Introduction stage
C- Growth stage
D- Maturity stage
10) A(n) _______________ is a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of these that identifies the maker or seller of a product or service.
A- Product feature
B- Brand
C- Sponsorship
D- Logo
advertising and promotion MKT621 Quiz 2
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
Quiz # 1 of MKT621 has been upload1. Which one of the following is the main ingredient of Promotional mix?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Public relation
D. All of the given options 2. Which one of the following form of communication represents advertising?
A. Paid form of personal communication
B. Unpaid form of personal communication
C. Paid form of non personal communication
D. Unpaid form of non personal communication
3. If a company's customers are concentrated in a small geographic area and the company sells technical products, which one of the following promotion methods is better?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
4. Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A. Personal selling
B. Advertising
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
5. Which one of the following is NOT a part of advertising Pyramid?
A. Need
B. Attention
C. Desire
D. Interest
6. Nestle gave an advertisement, “Nestlé’s makes the very best chocolate,” which one of the following claim they have used in this advertisement?
A. Weasel claim
B. Puffery
C. Shock ad
D. Emotional ad
7. In US presidential election 2008, two major candidates, Barak Obma and John Mackin had spent more then $ 28million for advertising their election campaign. Which one of the following benefits they got from this huge spending?
A. Economic
B. Social
C. Political
D. Cultural
8. Which one of the following major benefit advertising is providing to the society?
A. Using latest media
B. Using latest technology
C. Using celebrities in the advertisements
D. Providing information about a new product
9. Which one of the following is NOT a component of a product?
A. Credit term
B. Quality
C. Design
D. Packaging
10. Which one of the following is mostly closely associated with the concept of Intermediaries?
A. Market targeting
B. Channels of distribution
C. Market segmentation
D. Marketing information
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
Quiz # 1 of MKT621 has been upload1. Which one of the following is the main ingredient of Promotional mix?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Public relation
D. All of the given options 2. Which one of the following form of communication represents advertising?
A. Paid form of personal communication
B. Unpaid form of personal communication
C. Paid form of non personal communication
D. Unpaid form of non personal communication
3. If a company's customers are concentrated in a small geographic area and the company sells technical products, which one of the following promotion methods is better?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
4. Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A. Personal selling
B. Advertising
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
5. Which one of the following is NOT a part of advertising Pyramid?
A. Need
B. Attention
C. Desire
D. Interest
6. Nestle gave an advertisement, “Nestlé’s makes the very best chocolate,” which one of the following claim they have used in this advertisement?
A. Weasel claim
B. Puffery
C. Shock ad
D. Emotional ad
7. In US presidential election 2008, two major candidates, Barak Obma and John Mackin had spent more then $ 28million for advertising their election campaign. Which one of the following benefits they got from this huge spending?
A. Economic
B. Social
C. Political
D. Cultural
8. Which one of the following major benefit advertising is providing to the society?
A. Using latest media
B. Using latest technology
C. Using celebrities in the advertisements
D. Providing information about a new product
9. Which one of the following is NOT a component of a product?
A. Credit term
B. Quality
C. Design
D. Packaging
10. Which one of the following is mostly closely associated with the concept of Intermediaries?
A. Market targeting
B. Channels of distribution
C. Market segmentation
D. Marketing information
advertising and promotion MKT621 Quiz 2
1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
Quiz # 1 of MKT621 has been upload1. Which one of the following is the main ingredient of Promotional mix?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Public relation
D. All of the given options 2. Which one of the following form of communication represents advertising?
A. Paid form of personal communication
B. Unpaid form of personal communication
C. Paid form of non personal communication
D. Unpaid form of non personal communication
3. If a company's customers are concentrated in a small geographic area and the company sells technical products, which one of the following promotion methods is better?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
4. Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A. Personal selling
B. Advertising
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
5. Which one of the following is NOT a part of advertising Pyramid?
A. Need
B. Attention
C. Desire
D. Interest
6. Nestle gave an advertisement, “Nestlé’s makes the very best chocolate,” which one of the following claim they have used in this advertisement?
A. Weasel claim
B. Puffery
C. Shock ad
D. Emotional ad
7. In US presidential election 2008, two major candidates, Barak Obma and John Mackin had spent more then $ 28million for advertising their election campaign. Which one of the following benefits they got from this huge spending?
A. Economic
B. Social
C. Political
D. Cultural
8. Which one of the following major benefit advertising is providing to the society?
A. Using latest media
B. Using latest technology
C. Using celebrities in the advertisements
D. Providing information about a new product
9. Which one of the following is NOT a component of a product?
A. Credit term
B. Quality
C. Design
D. Packaging
10. Which one of the following is mostly closely associated with the concept of Intermediaries?
A. Market targeting
B. Channels of distribution
C. Market segmentation
D. Marketing information
2. B
3. C
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. D
9. A
10. B
Quiz # 1 of MKT621 has been upload1. Which one of the following is the main ingredient of Promotional mix?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Public relation
D. All of the given options 2. Which one of the following form of communication represents advertising?
A. Paid form of personal communication
B. Unpaid form of personal communication
C. Paid form of non personal communication
D. Unpaid form of non personal communication
3. If a company's customers are concentrated in a small geographic area and the company sells technical products, which one of the following promotion methods is better?
A. Advertising
B. Personal selling
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
4. Which promotion mix ingredient costs considerably more than advertising to reach one person but can provide more immediate feedback?
A. Personal selling
B. Advertising
C. Publicity
D. Public relation
5. Which one of the following is NOT a part of advertising Pyramid?
A. Need
B. Attention
C. Desire
D. Interest
6. Nestle gave an advertisement, “Nestlé’s makes the very best chocolate,” which one of the following claim they have used in this advertisement?
A. Weasel claim
B. Puffery
C. Shock ad
D. Emotional ad
7. In US presidential election 2008, two major candidates, Barak Obma and John Mackin had spent more then $ 28million for advertising their election campaign. Which one of the following benefits they got from this huge spending?
A. Economic
B. Social
C. Political
D. Cultural
8. Which one of the following major benefit advertising is providing to the society?
A. Using latest media
B. Using latest technology
C. Using celebrities in the advertisements
D. Providing information about a new product
9. Which one of the following is NOT a component of a product?
A. Credit term
B. Quality
C. Design
D. Packaging
10. Which one of the following is mostly closely associated with the concept of Intermediaries?
A. Market targeting
B. Channels of distribution
C. Market segmentation
D. Marketing information
Organizational Development (HRM-628) Solution
Q No. Selected option
1 C
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C
HRM628 ORganizational development
1. A __________ may be defined as an unwritten agreement between individuals
and the organization of which they are members.
a. Behavioral contract
b. Social contract
c. Psychological contract
d. Peripheral contract
2. Which one of the following is the part of contemporary action research?
a. Choose positive objective
b. Problem identification
c. Joint action planning
d. Unfreezing
3. The __________ is someone not previously associated with the client system.
a. External practitioner
b. Internal practitioner
c. Chief executive officer
d. Organization development
4. The goal of, which of the following organization development practicing style, is
neither effectiveness nor participant satisfaction?
a. Cheerleader Style
b. Analyzer Style
c. Persuader Style
d. Stabilizer Style
5. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes in which of the following practitioner-client
relationship mode?
a. The apathetic mode
b. The gamesmanship mode
c. The charismatic mode
d. The consensus mode
6. Which of the following statement is true about “consensus mode” of
practitioner-client relationship?
a. A limited number of members openly share ideas and feelings with the rest, based
on perceptions of leadership
b. Members continuously share perceptions and feelings openly both on selffulfillment
and organizational effectiveness
c. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes
d. Members keep their true ideas about self-fulfillment and organization
effectiveness to themselves assuming that sharing this information will not make
any difference
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management Science
b. Behavioral Science
c. Human Science
d. All of the given options
8. Which of the following is not necessary to be exhibited in a successful change
practitioner?
a. Empathy
b. Knowledge of the theories
c. Methods within the consultant's own discipline
d. Straight forwardness
9. __________ occurs when information gathered during the OD process is used
punitively. Large amounts of information are invariably obtained during the
entry and diagnostic phases of OD.
a. Misuse of data
b. Democratic value
c. Misrepresentation
d. Coercion
10. “Organization development practitioner should consult the relevant employees”.
This is an example of which of the following contracting process?
a. Describing
b. Mutual Expectations
c. Time and Resources
d. Ground Rules
1 C
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C
HRM628 ORganizational development
1. A __________ may be defined as an unwritten agreement between individuals
and the organization of which they are members.
a. Behavioral contract
b. Social contract
c. Psychological contract
d. Peripheral contract
2. Which one of the following is the part of contemporary action research?
a. Choose positive objective
b. Problem identification
c. Joint action planning
d. Unfreezing
3. The __________ is someone not previously associated with the client system.
a. External practitioner
b. Internal practitioner
c. Chief executive officer
d. Organization development
4. The goal of, which of the following organization development practicing style, is
neither effectiveness nor participant satisfaction?
a. Cheerleader Style
b. Analyzer Style
c. Persuader Style
d. Stabilizer Style
5. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes in which of the following practitioner-client
relationship mode?
a. The apathetic mode
b. The gamesmanship mode
c. The charismatic mode
d. The consensus mode
6. Which of the following statement is true about “consensus mode” of
practitioner-client relationship?
a. A limited number of members openly share ideas and feelings with the rest, based
on perceptions of leadership
b. Members continuously share perceptions and feelings openly both on selffulfillment
and organizational effectiveness
c. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes
d. Members keep their true ideas about self-fulfillment and organization
effectiveness to themselves assuming that sharing this information will not make
any difference
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management Science
b. Behavioral Science
c. Human Science
d. All of the given options
8. Which of the following is not necessary to be exhibited in a successful change
practitioner?
a. Empathy
b. Knowledge of the theories
c. Methods within the consultant's own discipline
d. Straight forwardness
9. __________ occurs when information gathered during the OD process is used
punitively. Large amounts of information are invariably obtained during the
entry and diagnostic phases of OD.
a. Misuse of data
b. Democratic value
c. Misrepresentation
d. Coercion
10. “Organization development practitioner should consult the relevant employees”.
This is an example of which of the following contracting process?
a. Describing
b. Mutual Expectations
c. Time and Resources
d. Ground Rules
Organizational Development (HRM-628) Solution
Q No. Selected option
1 C
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C
HRM628 ORganizational development
1. A __________ may be defined as an unwritten agreement between individuals
and the organization of which they are members.
a. Behavioral contract
b. Social contract
c. Psychological contract
d. Peripheral contract
2. Which one of the following is the part of contemporary action research?
a. Choose positive objective
b. Problem identification
c. Joint action planning
d. Unfreezing
3. The __________ is someone not previously associated with the client system.
a. External practitioner
b. Internal practitioner
c. Chief executive officer
d. Organization development
4. The goal of, which of the following organization development practicing style, is
neither effectiveness nor participant satisfaction?
a. Cheerleader Style
b. Analyzer Style
c. Persuader Style
d. Stabilizer Style
5. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes in which of the following practitioner-client
relationship mode?
a. The apathetic mode
b. The gamesmanship mode
c. The charismatic mode
d. The consensus mode
6. Which of the following statement is true about “consensus mode” of
practitioner-client relationship?
a. A limited number of members openly share ideas and feelings with the rest, based
on perceptions of leadership
b. Members continuously share perceptions and feelings openly both on selffulfillment
and organizational effectiveness
c. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes
d. Members keep their true ideas about self-fulfillment and organization
effectiveness to themselves assuming that sharing this information will not make
any difference
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management Science
b. Behavioral Science
c. Human Science
d. All of the given options
8. Which of the following is not necessary to be exhibited in a successful change
practitioner?
a. Empathy
b. Knowledge of the theories
c. Methods within the consultant's own discipline
d. Straight forwardness
9. __________ occurs when information gathered during the OD process is used
punitively. Large amounts of information are invariably obtained during the
entry and diagnostic phases of OD.
a. Misuse of data
b. Democratic value
c. Misrepresentation
d. Coercion
10. “Organization development practitioner should consult the relevant employees”.
This is an example of which of the following contracting process?
a. Describing
b. Mutual Expectations
c. Time and Resources
d. Ground Rules
1 C
2 A
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C
HRM628 ORganizational development
1. A __________ may be defined as an unwritten agreement between individuals
and the organization of which they are members.
a. Behavioral contract
b. Social contract
c. Psychological contract
d. Peripheral contract
2. Which one of the following is the part of contemporary action research?
a. Choose positive objective
b. Problem identification
c. Joint action planning
d. Unfreezing
3. The __________ is someone not previously associated with the client system.
a. External practitioner
b. Internal practitioner
c. Chief executive officer
d. Organization development
4. The goal of, which of the following organization development practicing style, is
neither effectiveness nor participant satisfaction?
a. Cheerleader Style
b. Analyzer Style
c. Persuader Style
d. Stabilizer Style
5. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes in which of the following practitioner-client
relationship mode?
a. The apathetic mode
b. The gamesmanship mode
c. The charismatic mode
d. The consensus mode
6. Which of the following statement is true about “consensus mode” of
practitioner-client relationship?
a. A limited number of members openly share ideas and feelings with the rest, based
on perceptions of leadership
b. Members continuously share perceptions and feelings openly both on selffulfillment
and organizational effectiveness
c. Members keep their true feelings about self- fulfillment and organizational
effectiveness to themselves, assuming that sharing information may threaten
personally desired outcomes
d. Members keep their true ideas about self-fulfillment and organization
effectiveness to themselves assuming that sharing this information will not make
any difference
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management
7. Organizational Development is a planned change in an organization’s culture
through the utilization of __________ technology, research and theory.
a. Management Science
b. Behavioral Science
c. Human Science
d. All of the given options
8. Which of the following is not necessary to be exhibited in a successful change
practitioner?
a. Empathy
b. Knowledge of the theories
c. Methods within the consultant's own discipline
d. Straight forwardness
9. __________ occurs when information gathered during the OD process is used
punitively. Large amounts of information are invariably obtained during the
entry and diagnostic phases of OD.
a. Misuse of data
b. Democratic value
c. Misrepresentation
d. Coercion
10. “Organization development practitioner should consult the relevant employees”.
This is an example of which of the following contracting process?
a. Describing
b. Mutual Expectations
c. Time and Resources
d. Ground Rules
Financial Statement Analysis (Fin-621) Solution
1 B
2 D
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B
-----------------------------------------
1. Which of the following would NOT be the characteristics of current assets?
A. Likely to change before the next accounting period is over
B. Not bought for resale
C. Use as part of the firm's trading operations
D. Liquidity
2. ABC Company has Rs. 150,000 cash, Rs. 80,000 as accounts receivables, Rs. 20,000
as allowance for doubtful accounts, Rs. 10,000 as work in progress inventory, Rs. 55,000
as prepaid expenses, Rs. 50,000 land purchased in the current year. Calculate the value of
current assets.
A. Rs. 275,000
B. Rs. 315,000
C. Rs. 365,000
D. Rs. 220,000
3. Which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from a "financing"
activity?
A. A cash outflow to the government for taxes
B. A cash outflow to repurchase the firm's own common stock
C. A cash outflow to lenders as interest
D. A cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of cash equivalents?
A. Certificates of Deposit
B. Money market accounts
C. Money market mutual funds
D. Euro Bond
5. Which of the following would NOT be considered a cash flow from “operating” activities?
A. Payments for the sale of loans
B. Interest received on loans
C. Tax payments
D. Payment of debt principle
6. Depreciation is added back to profit when arriving at the cash flow from operating
activities because:
A. Depreciation is only an estimated amount
B. Depreciation does not affect profit
C. Depreciation does not result in a flow of cash
D. Depreciation only affects the balance sheet, not the profit and loss account
7. If net profit before taxation and interest was Rs. 95,000, depreciation for the year was
Rs. 17,000, stock has decreased during the year by Rs. 7,000, debtors have increased by
Rs. 11,000 and creditors have decreased by Rs. 4,000, what is the overall cash flow from
operating activities?
A. Rs. 104,000
B. Rs. 112,000
C. Rs. 98,000
D. Rs. 134,000
8. In the long run, a business must generate positive net cash flow from which of the
following activities, if it is to survive?
A. Investing activities
B. Financing activities
C. Operating activities
D. Non cash activities
9. The income statement of the UBL shows the interest revenue of Rs. 6,000, and the
amount of accrued interest receivable has increased from Rs. 3000 to Rs. 4000 during the
year. Calculate the amount of interest received.
A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 5000
D. Rs. 1000
10. The statement of cash flow does NOT assist investors, creditors and others in
assessing such factors as:
A. The company’s ability to generate positive cash flows in future periods
B. The company’s ability to meet its obligations and to pay dividends
C. The company’s ability to forecast future losses
D. The company’s needs for external financing
11. Which of the following should NOT be called “Sales”?
A. Goods sold for cash
B. Office fixtures sold
C. Goods sold on credit
D. Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’
12. An incorrect inventory balance would NOT cause an error in the calculation of
___________.
A. Cost of goods sold
B. Net income
C. Gross profit
D. Dividends
13. Which of the following is NOT true about the specific identification method?
A. It requires a very detailed physical count
B. This method allows management to easily manipulate ending inventory cost
C. This method is very hard to use on interchangeable goods
D. This results in an overstated inventory account during the period of inflation
14. Under the periodic inventory system, which of the following is a correct closing
entry?
A. Debit - Income Summary; Credit - Sales
B. Credit - Income Summary; Debit - Purchase Returns & Allowances
C. Debit - Income Summary; Credit Merchandise Inventory
D. Debit Purchases; Credit - Income Summary
15. In a periodic inventory system, when merchandise is purchased its cost is debited to
________ account.
A. Inventory
B. Inventory expense
C. Purchases
D. Cost of goods sold
16. Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?
A. Marketable securities
B. Receivables
C. Inventory
D. Short-term investments
17. Notes to financial statements are beneficial in meeting the disclosure requirements of financial reporting. The note should NOT be used to:
A. Describe significant accounting policies
B. Describe depreciation methods employed by the company
C. Describe principles and methods peculiar to the industry
D. Correct an improper presentation in the financial statements
18. A company purchased the land in exchange for the capital stock; it would affect which of the following?
A. Cash flow from operating activities
B. Cash flow from investing activities
C. Cash flow from financing activities
D. It would not affect any section
19. Which of the following would NOT represent the cash outflows for the business?
A. Purchase of building for cash
B. The sale of land for cash
C. Retirement of long term debt
D. The payment of cash for dividends
20. The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of Rs. 20,000 in Accounts Receivable
and an ending balance of Rs. 15,000. The income statement reported Sales Revenue of
Rs. 200,000. Using this information, compute cash collected from customers.
A. Rs. 215,000
B. Rs. 205,000
C. Rs. 195,000
D. Rs. 200,000
2 D
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B
-----------------------------------------
1. Which of the following would NOT be the characteristics of current assets?
A. Likely to change before the next accounting period is over
B. Not bought for resale
C. Use as part of the firm's trading operations
D. Liquidity
2. ABC Company has Rs. 150,000 cash, Rs. 80,000 as accounts receivables, Rs. 20,000
as allowance for doubtful accounts, Rs. 10,000 as work in progress inventory, Rs. 55,000
as prepaid expenses, Rs. 50,000 land purchased in the current year. Calculate the value of
current assets.
A. Rs. 275,000
B. Rs. 315,000
C. Rs. 365,000
D. Rs. 220,000
3. Which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from a "financing"
activity?
A. A cash outflow to the government for taxes
B. A cash outflow to repurchase the firm's own common stock
C. A cash outflow to lenders as interest
D. A cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of cash equivalents?
A. Certificates of Deposit
B. Money market accounts
C. Money market mutual funds
D. Euro Bond
5. Which of the following would NOT be considered a cash flow from “operating” activities?
A. Payments for the sale of loans
B. Interest received on loans
C. Tax payments
D. Payment of debt principle
6. Depreciation is added back to profit when arriving at the cash flow from operating
activities because:
A. Depreciation is only an estimated amount
B. Depreciation does not affect profit
C. Depreciation does not result in a flow of cash
D. Depreciation only affects the balance sheet, not the profit and loss account
7. If net profit before taxation and interest was Rs. 95,000, depreciation for the year was
Rs. 17,000, stock has decreased during the year by Rs. 7,000, debtors have increased by
Rs. 11,000 and creditors have decreased by Rs. 4,000, what is the overall cash flow from
operating activities?
A. Rs. 104,000
B. Rs. 112,000
C. Rs. 98,000
D. Rs. 134,000
8. In the long run, a business must generate positive net cash flow from which of the
following activities, if it is to survive?
A. Investing activities
B. Financing activities
C. Operating activities
D. Non cash activities
9. The income statement of the UBL shows the interest revenue of Rs. 6,000, and the
amount of accrued interest receivable has increased from Rs. 3000 to Rs. 4000 during the
year. Calculate the amount of interest received.
A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 5000
D. Rs. 1000
10. The statement of cash flow does NOT assist investors, creditors and others in
assessing such factors as:
A. The company’s ability to generate positive cash flows in future periods
B. The company’s ability to meet its obligations and to pay dividends
C. The company’s ability to forecast future losses
D. The company’s needs for external financing
11. Which of the following should NOT be called “Sales”?
A. Goods sold for cash
B. Office fixtures sold
C. Goods sold on credit
D. Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’
12. An incorrect inventory balance would NOT cause an error in the calculation of
___________.
A. Cost of goods sold
B. Net income
C. Gross profit
D. Dividends
13. Which of the following is NOT true about the specific identification method?
A. It requires a very detailed physical count
B. This method allows management to easily manipulate ending inventory cost
C. This method is very hard to use on interchangeable goods
D. This results in an overstated inventory account during the period of inflation
14. Under the periodic inventory system, which of the following is a correct closing
entry?
A. Debit - Income Summary; Credit - Sales
B. Credit - Income Summary; Debit - Purchase Returns & Allowances
C. Debit - Income Summary; Credit Merchandise Inventory
D. Debit Purchases; Credit - Income Summary
15. In a periodic inventory system, when merchandise is purchased its cost is debited to
________ account.
A. Inventory
B. Inventory expense
C. Purchases
D. Cost of goods sold
16. Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?
A. Marketable securities
B. Receivables
C. Inventory
D. Short-term investments
17. Notes to financial statements are beneficial in meeting the disclosure requirements of financial reporting. The note should NOT be used to:
A. Describe significant accounting policies
B. Describe depreciation methods employed by the company
C. Describe principles and methods peculiar to the industry
D. Correct an improper presentation in the financial statements
18. A company purchased the land in exchange for the capital stock; it would affect which of the following?
A. Cash flow from operating activities
B. Cash flow from investing activities
C. Cash flow from financing activities
D. It would not affect any section
19. Which of the following would NOT represent the cash outflows for the business?
A. Purchase of building for cash
B. The sale of land for cash
C. Retirement of long term debt
D. The payment of cash for dividends
20. The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of Rs. 20,000 in Accounts Receivable
and an ending balance of Rs. 15,000. The income statement reported Sales Revenue of
Rs. 200,000. Using this information, compute cash collected from customers.
A. Rs. 215,000
B. Rs. 205,000
C. Rs. 195,000
D. Rs. 200,000
Financial Statement Analysis (Fin-621) Solution
1 B
2 D
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B
-----------------------------------------
1. Which of the following would NOT be the characteristics of current assets?
A. Likely to change before the next accounting period is over
B. Not bought for resale
C. Use as part of the firm's trading operations
D. Liquidity
2. ABC Company has Rs. 150,000 cash, Rs. 80,000 as accounts receivables, Rs. 20,000
as allowance for doubtful accounts, Rs. 10,000 as work in progress inventory, Rs. 55,000
as prepaid expenses, Rs. 50,000 land purchased in the current year. Calculate the value of
current assets.
A. Rs. 275,000
B. Rs. 315,000
C. Rs. 365,000
D. Rs. 220,000
3. Which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from a "financing"
activity?
A. A cash outflow to the government for taxes
B. A cash outflow to repurchase the firm's own common stock
C. A cash outflow to lenders as interest
D. A cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of cash equivalents?
A. Certificates of Deposit
B. Money market accounts
C. Money market mutual funds
D. Euro Bond
5. Which of the following would NOT be considered a cash flow from “operating” activities?
A. Payments for the sale of loans
B. Interest received on loans
C. Tax payments
D. Payment of debt principle
6. Depreciation is added back to profit when arriving at the cash flow from operating
activities because:
A. Depreciation is only an estimated amount
B. Depreciation does not affect profit
C. Depreciation does not result in a flow of cash
D. Depreciation only affects the balance sheet, not the profit and loss account
7. If net profit before taxation and interest was Rs. 95,000, depreciation for the year was
Rs. 17,000, stock has decreased during the year by Rs. 7,000, debtors have increased by
Rs. 11,000 and creditors have decreased by Rs. 4,000, what is the overall cash flow from
operating activities?
A. Rs. 104,000
B. Rs. 112,000
C. Rs. 98,000
D. Rs. 134,000
8. In the long run, a business must generate positive net cash flow from which of the
following activities, if it is to survive?
A. Investing activities
B. Financing activities
C. Operating activities
D. Non cash activities
9. The income statement of the UBL shows the interest revenue of Rs. 6,000, and the
amount of accrued interest receivable has increased from Rs. 3000 to Rs. 4000 during the
year. Calculate the amount of interest received.
A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 5000
D. Rs. 1000
10. The statement of cash flow does NOT assist investors, creditors and others in
assessing such factors as:
A. The company’s ability to generate positive cash flows in future periods
B. The company’s ability to meet its obligations and to pay dividends
C. The company’s ability to forecast future losses
D. The company’s needs for external financing
11. Which of the following should NOT be called “Sales”?
A. Goods sold for cash
B. Office fixtures sold
C. Goods sold on credit
D. Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’
12. An incorrect inventory balance would NOT cause an error in the calculation of
___________.
A. Cost of goods sold
B. Net income
C. Gross profit
D. Dividends
13. Which of the following is NOT true about the specific identification method?
A. It requires a very detailed physical count
B. This method allows management to easily manipulate ending inventory cost
C. This method is very hard to use on interchangeable goods
D. This results in an overstated inventory account during the period of inflation
14. Under the periodic inventory system, which of the following is a correct closing
entry?
A. Debit - Income Summary; Credit - Sales
B. Credit - Income Summary; Debit - Purchase Returns & Allowances
C. Debit - Income Summary; Credit Merchandise Inventory
D. Debit Purchases; Credit - Income Summary
15. In a periodic inventory system, when merchandise is purchased its cost is debited to
________ account.
A. Inventory
B. Inventory expense
C. Purchases
D. Cost of goods sold
16. Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?
A. Marketable securities
B. Receivables
C. Inventory
D. Short-term investments
17. Notes to financial statements are beneficial in meeting the disclosure requirements of financial reporting. The note should NOT be used to:
A. Describe significant accounting policies
B. Describe depreciation methods employed by the company
C. Describe principles and methods peculiar to the industry
D. Correct an improper presentation in the financial statements
18. A company purchased the land in exchange for the capital stock; it would affect which of the following?
A. Cash flow from operating activities
B. Cash flow from investing activities
C. Cash flow from financing activities
D. It would not affect any section
19. Which of the following would NOT represent the cash outflows for the business?
A. Purchase of building for cash
B. The sale of land for cash
C. Retirement of long term debt
D. The payment of cash for dividends
20. The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of Rs. 20,000 in Accounts Receivable
and an ending balance of Rs. 15,000. The income statement reported Sales Revenue of
Rs. 200,000. Using this information, compute cash collected from customers.
A. Rs. 215,000
B. Rs. 205,000
C. Rs. 195,000
D. Rs. 200,000
2 D
3 D
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 C
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 C
17 C
18 A
19 D
20 B
-----------------------------------------
1. Which of the following would NOT be the characteristics of current assets?
A. Likely to change before the next accounting period is over
B. Not bought for resale
C. Use as part of the firm's trading operations
D. Liquidity
2. ABC Company has Rs. 150,000 cash, Rs. 80,000 as accounts receivables, Rs. 20,000
as allowance for doubtful accounts, Rs. 10,000 as work in progress inventory, Rs. 55,000
as prepaid expenses, Rs. 50,000 land purchased in the current year. Calculate the value of
current assets.
A. Rs. 275,000
B. Rs. 315,000
C. Rs. 365,000
D. Rs. 220,000
3. Which of the following would be considered a cash-flow item from a "financing"
activity?
A. A cash outflow to the government for taxes
B. A cash outflow to repurchase the firm's own common stock
C. A cash outflow to lenders as interest
D. A cash outflow to purchase bonds issued by another company
4. Which of the following is NOT an example of cash equivalents?
A. Certificates of Deposit
B. Money market accounts
C. Money market mutual funds
D. Euro Bond
5. Which of the following would NOT be considered a cash flow from “operating” activities?
A. Payments for the sale of loans
B. Interest received on loans
C. Tax payments
D. Payment of debt principle
6. Depreciation is added back to profit when arriving at the cash flow from operating
activities because:
A. Depreciation is only an estimated amount
B. Depreciation does not affect profit
C. Depreciation does not result in a flow of cash
D. Depreciation only affects the balance sheet, not the profit and loss account
7. If net profit before taxation and interest was Rs. 95,000, depreciation for the year was
Rs. 17,000, stock has decreased during the year by Rs. 7,000, debtors have increased by
Rs. 11,000 and creditors have decreased by Rs. 4,000, what is the overall cash flow from
operating activities?
A. Rs. 104,000
B. Rs. 112,000
C. Rs. 98,000
D. Rs. 134,000
8. In the long run, a business must generate positive net cash flow from which of the
following activities, if it is to survive?
A. Investing activities
B. Financing activities
C. Operating activities
D. Non cash activities
9. The income statement of the UBL shows the interest revenue of Rs. 6,000, and the
amount of accrued interest receivable has increased from Rs. 3000 to Rs. 4000 during the
year. Calculate the amount of interest received.
A. Rs. 7000
B. Rs. 8000
C. Rs. 5000
D. Rs. 1000
10. The statement of cash flow does NOT assist investors, creditors and others in
assessing such factors as:
A. The company’s ability to generate positive cash flows in future periods
B. The company’s ability to meet its obligations and to pay dividends
C. The company’s ability to forecast future losses
D. The company’s needs for external financing
11. Which of the following should NOT be called “Sales”?
A. Goods sold for cash
B. Office fixtures sold
C. Goods sold on credit
D. Sale of item previously included in ‘Purchases’
12. An incorrect inventory balance would NOT cause an error in the calculation of
___________.
A. Cost of goods sold
B. Net income
C. Gross profit
D. Dividends
13. Which of the following is NOT true about the specific identification method?
A. It requires a very detailed physical count
B. This method allows management to easily manipulate ending inventory cost
C. This method is very hard to use on interchangeable goods
D. This results in an overstated inventory account during the period of inflation
14. Under the periodic inventory system, which of the following is a correct closing
entry?
A. Debit - Income Summary; Credit - Sales
B. Credit - Income Summary; Debit - Purchase Returns & Allowances
C. Debit - Income Summary; Credit Merchandise Inventory
D. Debit Purchases; Credit - Income Summary
15. In a periodic inventory system, when merchandise is purchased its cost is debited to
________ account.
A. Inventory
B. Inventory expense
C. Purchases
D. Cost of goods sold
16. Which of the following is NOT a financial asset?
A. Marketable securities
B. Receivables
C. Inventory
D. Short-term investments
17. Notes to financial statements are beneficial in meeting the disclosure requirements of financial reporting. The note should NOT be used to:
A. Describe significant accounting policies
B. Describe depreciation methods employed by the company
C. Describe principles and methods peculiar to the industry
D. Correct an improper presentation in the financial statements
18. A company purchased the land in exchange for the capital stock; it would affect which of the following?
A. Cash flow from operating activities
B. Cash flow from investing activities
C. Cash flow from financing activities
D. It would not affect any section
19. Which of the following would NOT represent the cash outflows for the business?
A. Purchase of building for cash
B. The sale of land for cash
C. Retirement of long term debt
D. The payment of cash for dividends
20. The balance sheet reported a beginning balance of Rs. 20,000 in Accounts Receivable
and an ending balance of Rs. 15,000. The income statement reported Sales Revenue of
Rs. 200,000. Using this information, compute cash collected from customers.
A. Rs. 215,000
B. Rs. 205,000
C. Rs. 195,000
D. Rs. 200,000
Thursday, April 9, 2009
Strategic Management (MGT-603) Solution
Q No. Selected Option
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 D
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 D
Strategic Management (MGT-603) Solution
Q No. Selected Option
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 D
1 B
2 B
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 B
7 C
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 D
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 C
16 D
17 A
18 B
19 C
20 D
Principales of Management (Mgt-503) Solution Quiz 2
1 B
2 B
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 A
20 A
2 B
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 A
20 A
Principales of Management (Mgt-503) Solution Quiz 2
1 B
2 B
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 A
20 A
2 B
3 B
4 D
5 D
6 D
7 A
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 C
14 C
15 C
16 C
17 D
18 B
19 A
20 A
MGT301 - Principles of Marketing Solution
1.. C
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
MGT301 - Principles of Marketing Solution
1.. C
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
MGT301 - Principles of Marketing Solution
1.. C
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
MGT301 - Principles of Marketing Solution
1.. C
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
2.. B
3.. D
4.. C
5.. A
6.. B
7.. C
8.. D
9.. D
10.. C
11.. A
12.. B
13.. B
14.. B
15.. C
16.. B
17.. A
18.. C
19.. C
20.. D
-------------------
1. Management Information System consists of people, equipment, and procedures to
gather, sort, ____________, evaluate, and distribute information to marketing decision
makers.
a. Test
b. Arrange
c. Analyze
d. Control
2. The systematic collection and analysis of publicly available information about
competitors and developments in the marketing environment is very useful. It is known
as:
a. Marketing data
b. Marketing intelligence
c. Web Master
d. Secondary data
3. Which of the following steps in the marketing research process has been left out:
defining the problems and research objectives, implementing the research plan, and
interpreting and reporting the findings?
a. Developing the research budget
b. Choosing the research agency
c. Choosing the research method
d. Developing the research plan
4. Harvard University is using the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of
data relevant to marketing its programs to minority students. What do we call this?
a. Promotion
b. Self-study
c. Marketing research
d. Cost-benefit analysis
5. Which one of the following schemes is TRUE regarding marketing research?
a. Gathering data, analysis, interpretation
b. Analysis, gathering data, interpretation
c. Interpretation, gathering data, analysis
d. Interpretation, reporting, analysis
6. The objective of which of the following research is to gather preliminary information
that will help define the problem and suggest hypotheses?
a. Descriptive
b. Exploratory
c. Causal
d. Corrective
7. Which form of data can usually be obtained more quickly and at a lower cost?
a. Primary
b. Census
c. Secondary
d. Tertiary
8. Which one of the following is NOT one of the stages that customers go through in the
process of adopting a new product?
a. Awareness
b. Interest
c. Evaluation
d. Culture
9. Which one of the following statements BEST characterizes marketing research?
a. Research is a continuous process, providing a constant flow of information
b. Research is conducted on a special-project basis
c. Research is performed when routine information is required
d. Research is the basis for making recurring marketing decisions
10. If ABC Ltd knows that its market share in Pakistan has dropped 13 percent in the first
quarter of the year but does not know what might have contributed to this decline; it is in
which stage of the marketing research process?
a. Hypothesis development
b. Symptom identification
c. Problem identification
d. Data interpretation
11. A person on the University Book Shop's survey asks respondents to tell the shop, in
their own words, what they like least about textbook shopping. What is a type of this
question?
a. An open-ended
b. A dichotomous
c. A multiple choice
d. A scale
12. Marketing researchers usually draw conclusions about large groups of consumers by
studying which of the following small components of the total consumer population?
a. Group
b. Sample
c. Target group
d. Audience
13. The process by which people select, organize and interpret information to form a
meaningful picture of the world. It refers to which one of the following?
a. Personality
b. Perception
c. Selective group
d. Habitual behavior
14. Which one of the following concepts refers to the “set of actions and activities
associated with each position one holds within a family, club and organization”?
a. Personality
b. A role
c. Perception
d. An attitude
15. Marketing stimuli consist of the four Ps. Which is NOT one of these Ps?
a. Product
b. Price
c. Political
d. Promotion
16. Groups of people with shared value systems based on common life experiences and
situations in a culture represent which one of the following options?
a. Cognitive dissonances
b. Subcultures
c. Motives
d. Attitudes
17. A change in an individual's behavior prompted by information and experience refers
to which one of the following concepts?
a. Learning
b. Role selection
c. Perception
d. Motivation
18. Person’s pattern of living as expressed in his or her psychographics represents which
one of the following concepts?
a. Personality
b. Culture
c. Lifestyle
d. Motive
19. Maslow has a list of human needs from the most pressing to the least pressing. They
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Physiological needs
b. Safety needs
c. Need recognition
d. Self-actualization
20. A transaction in which the organization is making an initial purchase of an item to be
used to perform a new job refers to which of the following purchases?
a. Straight rebuy purchase
b. Delayed purchase
c. Modified rebuy purchase
d. New-task purchase
Financial Accounting (Mgt-101) Solution
1-d
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
-----------------------------
Choose the correct/best option from given MCQs and put your answer in
tabular form as drawn above.
1. Which of the following account balance is shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
(It is assumed that all account balances are shown on normal balance).
a. Capital account
b. Sundry creditors account
c. Accounts payable account
d. Sundry debtors account
2. If cost of sales is Rs. 95,000, income from sales Rs. 200,000 and operating
expenses Rs. 300,000. What will be net result?
a. Rs.195,000 Losses
b. Rs.195,000 Profits
c. Rs.105,000 Profits
d. Rs.105,000 Losses
3. In which of the following statement opening stock is shown?
a. Profit and loss account
b. Balance sheet
c. Cash flow statement
d. Owner’s equity
4. Working capital Rs. 20,000, Current liabilities Rs. 30,000 and fixed assets Rs.
100,000; calculate current assets?
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 50,000
c. Rs. 110,000
d. Rs. 120,000
5. Which of the following content(s) is (are) included in the Cost of goods sold?
a. Opening stock
b. Purchases
c. Freight in
d. All of the given options
6. Which of the following Organization converts raw material into finished goods?
a. Trading concern
b. Manufacturing concern
c. Merchandising concern
d. Service concern
7. Which of the following is an example of direct materials cost?
a. Production worker’s wages
b. Depreciation expenses
c. A piece of wood for the production of chair
d. Polish and finishing material for chair
8. In cost of goods sold statement, the ‘cost of material consumed’ is equal to:
a. Opening raw material inventory + Purchases – Ending raw material
inventory
b. Opening raw material inventory - Purchases + Ending raw material
inventory
c. Ending raw material inventory - Opening raw material inventory –
Purchases
d. Ending raw material inventory + Opening raw material inventory +
Purchases
9. What would be the value of Total Factory Cost, if cost of raw materials, direct
labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs are Rs.80,000, Rs.50,000, and
Rs.60,000 respectively?
a. Rs.130, 000
b. Rs.110, 000
c. Rs.140, 000
d. Rs.190, 000
10. Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
a. Current assets
b. Liquid assets
c. Floating assets
d. Fixed assets
11. An asset cost Rs. 50,000, has an estimated residual value of Rs.1, 500, and an
estimated useful life of 5 years. What is the depreciation rate?
a. 20.0%
b. 25.0%
c. 35.5%
d. 50.4 %
12. Calculate depreciation of machine after first year by using diminishing balance
method with the help of given data?
If, Cost of machine = Rs.400, 000
Useful life = 5 years
Residual value = Rs.25, 000
Sale price = Rs.40, 000
Rate of depreciation = 40%
a. Rs. 160,000
b. Rs. 11,840
c. Rs. 34,560
d. Rs. 34,860
13. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about closing Stock?
a. It is added into current assets
b. It is deducted from material available for use
c. It becomes opening stock of next year
d. It increases the owner’s equity of business
14. In the cost of goods sold statement, Cost of direct material consumed + Direct
labor= ___________
a. Conversion cost
b. Prime cost
c. Total factory cost
d. Cost of goods manufactured
15. The total of all costs incurred to convert raw material into finished goods is
known as:
a. Prime cost
b. Conversion cost
c. Sunk cost
d. Opportunity cost
16. In cost of goods sold statement the ‘total factory cost’ is equal to:
a. Cost of material consumed + Labor cost
b. Cost of material consumed + Conversion cost
c. Cost of material consumed + Total factory cost
d. Cost of material consumed + Factory overhead
17. Which of the following is (are) inventory valuation method(s)?
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Weighted average
d. All of the given options
18. The cost of an incomplete fixed asset is transferred to _________ as on Balance
Sheet date.
a. Capital account
b. Capital work in progress account
c. Relevant asset account
d. Owner's equity account
19. Under the straight line method of depreciation:
a. Amount of depreciation increases every year
b. Amount of depreciation remains constant for every year
c. Amount of depreciation decreases every year
d. None of the given options
20. Which of the following asset is NOT depreciated?
a. Factory Buildings
b. Office Equipment
c. Land
d. Plant & Machinery
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
-----------------------------
Choose the correct/best option from given MCQs and put your answer in
tabular form as drawn above.
1. Which of the following account balance is shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
(It is assumed that all account balances are shown on normal balance).
a. Capital account
b. Sundry creditors account
c. Accounts payable account
d. Sundry debtors account
2. If cost of sales is Rs. 95,000, income from sales Rs. 200,000 and operating
expenses Rs. 300,000. What will be net result?
a. Rs.195,000 Losses
b. Rs.195,000 Profits
c. Rs.105,000 Profits
d. Rs.105,000 Losses
3. In which of the following statement opening stock is shown?
a. Profit and loss account
b. Balance sheet
c. Cash flow statement
d. Owner’s equity
4. Working capital Rs. 20,000, Current liabilities Rs. 30,000 and fixed assets Rs.
100,000; calculate current assets?
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 50,000
c. Rs. 110,000
d. Rs. 120,000
5. Which of the following content(s) is (are) included in the Cost of goods sold?
a. Opening stock
b. Purchases
c. Freight in
d. All of the given options
6. Which of the following Organization converts raw material into finished goods?
a. Trading concern
b. Manufacturing concern
c. Merchandising concern
d. Service concern
7. Which of the following is an example of direct materials cost?
a. Production worker’s wages
b. Depreciation expenses
c. A piece of wood for the production of chair
d. Polish and finishing material for chair
8. In cost of goods sold statement, the ‘cost of material consumed’ is equal to:
a. Opening raw material inventory + Purchases – Ending raw material
inventory
b. Opening raw material inventory - Purchases + Ending raw material
inventory
c. Ending raw material inventory - Opening raw material inventory –
Purchases
d. Ending raw material inventory + Opening raw material inventory +
Purchases
9. What would be the value of Total Factory Cost, if cost of raw materials, direct
labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs are Rs.80,000, Rs.50,000, and
Rs.60,000 respectively?
a. Rs.130, 000
b. Rs.110, 000
c. Rs.140, 000
d. Rs.190, 000
10. Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
a. Current assets
b. Liquid assets
c. Floating assets
d. Fixed assets
11. An asset cost Rs. 50,000, has an estimated residual value of Rs.1, 500, and an
estimated useful life of 5 years. What is the depreciation rate?
a. 20.0%
b. 25.0%
c. 35.5%
d. 50.4 %
12. Calculate depreciation of machine after first year by using diminishing balance
method with the help of given data?
If, Cost of machine = Rs.400, 000
Useful life = 5 years
Residual value = Rs.25, 000
Sale price = Rs.40, 000
Rate of depreciation = 40%
a. Rs. 160,000
b. Rs. 11,840
c. Rs. 34,560
d. Rs. 34,860
13. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about closing Stock?
a. It is added into current assets
b. It is deducted from material available for use
c. It becomes opening stock of next year
d. It increases the owner’s equity of business
14. In the cost of goods sold statement, Cost of direct material consumed + Direct
labor= ___________
a. Conversion cost
b. Prime cost
c. Total factory cost
d. Cost of goods manufactured
15. The total of all costs incurred to convert raw material into finished goods is
known as:
a. Prime cost
b. Conversion cost
c. Sunk cost
d. Opportunity cost
16. In cost of goods sold statement the ‘total factory cost’ is equal to:
a. Cost of material consumed + Labor cost
b. Cost of material consumed + Conversion cost
c. Cost of material consumed + Total factory cost
d. Cost of material consumed + Factory overhead
17. Which of the following is (are) inventory valuation method(s)?
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Weighted average
d. All of the given options
18. The cost of an incomplete fixed asset is transferred to _________ as on Balance
Sheet date.
a. Capital account
b. Capital work in progress account
c. Relevant asset account
d. Owner's equity account
19. Under the straight line method of depreciation:
a. Amount of depreciation increases every year
b. Amount of depreciation remains constant for every year
c. Amount of depreciation decreases every year
d. None of the given options
20. Which of the following asset is NOT depreciated?
a. Factory Buildings
b. Office Equipment
c. Land
d. Plant & Machinery
Financial Accounting (Mgt-101) Solution
1-d
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
-----------------------------
Choose the correct/best option from given MCQs and put your answer in
tabular form as drawn above.
1. Which of the following account balance is shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
(It is assumed that all account balances are shown on normal balance).
a. Capital account
b. Sundry creditors account
c. Accounts payable account
d. Sundry debtors account
2. If cost of sales is Rs. 95,000, income from sales Rs. 200,000 and operating
expenses Rs. 300,000. What will be net result?
a. Rs.195,000 Losses
b. Rs.195,000 Profits
c. Rs.105,000 Profits
d. Rs.105,000 Losses
3. In which of the following statement opening stock is shown?
a. Profit and loss account
b. Balance sheet
c. Cash flow statement
d. Owner’s equity
4. Working capital Rs. 20,000, Current liabilities Rs. 30,000 and fixed assets Rs.
100,000; calculate current assets?
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 50,000
c. Rs. 110,000
d. Rs. 120,000
5. Which of the following content(s) is (are) included in the Cost of goods sold?
a. Opening stock
b. Purchases
c. Freight in
d. All of the given options
6. Which of the following Organization converts raw material into finished goods?
a. Trading concern
b. Manufacturing concern
c. Merchandising concern
d. Service concern
7. Which of the following is an example of direct materials cost?
a. Production worker’s wages
b. Depreciation expenses
c. A piece of wood for the production of chair
d. Polish and finishing material for chair
8. In cost of goods sold statement, the ‘cost of material consumed’ is equal to:
a. Opening raw material inventory + Purchases – Ending raw material
inventory
b. Opening raw material inventory - Purchases + Ending raw material
inventory
c. Ending raw material inventory - Opening raw material inventory –
Purchases
d. Ending raw material inventory + Opening raw material inventory +
Purchases
9. What would be the value of Total Factory Cost, if cost of raw materials, direct
labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs are Rs.80,000, Rs.50,000, and
Rs.60,000 respectively?
a. Rs.130, 000
b. Rs.110, 000
c. Rs.140, 000
d. Rs.190, 000
10. Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
a. Current assets
b. Liquid assets
c. Floating assets
d. Fixed assets
11. An asset cost Rs. 50,000, has an estimated residual value of Rs.1, 500, and an
estimated useful life of 5 years. What is the depreciation rate?
a. 20.0%
b. 25.0%
c. 35.5%
d. 50.4 %
12. Calculate depreciation of machine after first year by using diminishing balance
method with the help of given data?
If, Cost of machine = Rs.400, 000
Useful life = 5 years
Residual value = Rs.25, 000
Sale price = Rs.40, 000
Rate of depreciation = 40%
a. Rs. 160,000
b. Rs. 11,840
c. Rs. 34,560
d. Rs. 34,860
13. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about closing Stock?
a. It is added into current assets
b. It is deducted from material available for use
c. It becomes opening stock of next year
d. It increases the owner’s equity of business
14. In the cost of goods sold statement, Cost of direct material consumed + Direct
labor= ___________
a. Conversion cost
b. Prime cost
c. Total factory cost
d. Cost of goods manufactured
15. The total of all costs incurred to convert raw material into finished goods is
known as:
a. Prime cost
b. Conversion cost
c. Sunk cost
d. Opportunity cost
16. In cost of goods sold statement the ‘total factory cost’ is equal to:
a. Cost of material consumed + Labor cost
b. Cost of material consumed + Conversion cost
c. Cost of material consumed + Total factory cost
d. Cost of material consumed + Factory overhead
17. Which of the following is (are) inventory valuation method(s)?
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Weighted average
d. All of the given options
18. The cost of an incomplete fixed asset is transferred to _________ as on Balance
Sheet date.
a. Capital account
b. Capital work in progress account
c. Relevant asset account
d. Owner's equity account
19. Under the straight line method of depreciation:
a. Amount of depreciation increases every year
b. Amount of depreciation remains constant for every year
c. Amount of depreciation decreases every year
d. None of the given options
20. Which of the following asset is NOT depreciated?
a. Factory Buildings
b. Office Equipment
c. Land
d. Plant & Machinery
2-a
3-a
4-b
5-d
6-b
7-a
8-a
9-d
10-d
11-d
12-a
13-d
14-b
15-b
16-b
17-d
18-b
19-b
20-c
-----------------------------
Choose the correct/best option from given MCQs and put your answer in
tabular form as drawn above.
1. Which of the following account balance is shown on debit side of Trial Balance?
(It is assumed that all account balances are shown on normal balance).
a. Capital account
b. Sundry creditors account
c. Accounts payable account
d. Sundry debtors account
2. If cost of sales is Rs. 95,000, income from sales Rs. 200,000 and operating
expenses Rs. 300,000. What will be net result?
a. Rs.195,000 Losses
b. Rs.195,000 Profits
c. Rs.105,000 Profits
d. Rs.105,000 Losses
3. In which of the following statement opening stock is shown?
a. Profit and loss account
b. Balance sheet
c. Cash flow statement
d. Owner’s equity
4. Working capital Rs. 20,000, Current liabilities Rs. 30,000 and fixed assets Rs.
100,000; calculate current assets?
a. Rs. 10,000
b. Rs. 50,000
c. Rs. 110,000
d. Rs. 120,000
5. Which of the following content(s) is (are) included in the Cost of goods sold?
a. Opening stock
b. Purchases
c. Freight in
d. All of the given options
6. Which of the following Organization converts raw material into finished goods?
a. Trading concern
b. Manufacturing concern
c. Merchandising concern
d. Service concern
7. Which of the following is an example of direct materials cost?
a. Production worker’s wages
b. Depreciation expenses
c. A piece of wood for the production of chair
d. Polish and finishing material for chair
8. In cost of goods sold statement, the ‘cost of material consumed’ is equal to:
a. Opening raw material inventory + Purchases – Ending raw material
inventory
b. Opening raw material inventory - Purchases + Ending raw material
inventory
c. Ending raw material inventory - Opening raw material inventory –
Purchases
d. Ending raw material inventory + Opening raw material inventory +
Purchases
9. What would be the value of Total Factory Cost, if cost of raw materials, direct
labor costs, and manufacturing overhead costs are Rs.80,000, Rs.50,000, and
Rs.60,000 respectively?
a. Rs.130, 000
b. Rs.110, 000
c. Rs.140, 000
d. Rs.190, 000
10. Which of the following assets are shown at written down value in Balance Sheet?
a. Current assets
b. Liquid assets
c. Floating assets
d. Fixed assets
11. An asset cost Rs. 50,000, has an estimated residual value of Rs.1, 500, and an
estimated useful life of 5 years. What is the depreciation rate?
a. 20.0%
b. 25.0%
c. 35.5%
d. 50.4 %
12. Calculate depreciation of machine after first year by using diminishing balance
method with the help of given data?
If, Cost of machine = Rs.400, 000
Useful life = 5 years
Residual value = Rs.25, 000
Sale price = Rs.40, 000
Rate of depreciation = 40%
a. Rs. 160,000
b. Rs. 11,840
c. Rs. 34,560
d. Rs. 34,860
13. Which one of the following is INCORRECT about closing Stock?
a. It is added into current assets
b. It is deducted from material available for use
c. It becomes opening stock of next year
d. It increases the owner’s equity of business
14. In the cost of goods sold statement, Cost of direct material consumed + Direct
labor= ___________
a. Conversion cost
b. Prime cost
c. Total factory cost
d. Cost of goods manufactured
15. The total of all costs incurred to convert raw material into finished goods is
known as:
a. Prime cost
b. Conversion cost
c. Sunk cost
d. Opportunity cost
16. In cost of goods sold statement the ‘total factory cost’ is equal to:
a. Cost of material consumed + Labor cost
b. Cost of material consumed + Conversion cost
c. Cost of material consumed + Total factory cost
d. Cost of material consumed + Factory overhead
17. Which of the following is (are) inventory valuation method(s)?
a. FIFO
b. LIFO
c. Weighted average
d. All of the given options
18. The cost of an incomplete fixed asset is transferred to _________ as on Balance
Sheet date.
a. Capital account
b. Capital work in progress account
c. Relevant asset account
d. Owner's equity account
19. Under the straight line method of depreciation:
a. Amount of depreciation increases every year
b. Amount of depreciation remains constant for every year
c. Amount of depreciation decreases every year
d. None of the given options
20. Which of the following asset is NOT depreciated?
a. Factory Buildings
b. Office Equipment
c. Land
d. Plant & Machinery
Marketing management (Mkt501) Quiz # 2 Solution
1-A
2-B
3-A
4-D
5-D
6-C
7-D
8-D
9-B
10-A
11-D
12-C
13-A
14-B
15-B
16-B
17-B
18-A
19-A
20-C
2-B
3-A
4-D
5-D
6-C
7-D
8-D
9-B
10-A
11-D
12-C
13-A
14-B
15-B
16-B
17-B
18-A
19-A
20-C
Marketing management (Mkt501) Quiz # 2 Solution
1-A
2-B
3-A
4-D
5-D
6-C
7-D
8-D
9-B
10-A
11-D
12-C
13-A
14-B
15-B
16-B
17-B
18-A
19-A
20-C
2-B
3-A
4-D
5-D
6-C
7-D
8-D
9-B
10-A
11-D
12-C
13-A
14-B
15-B
16-B
17-B
18-A
19-A
20-C
MTH-202 Solution
Q:1
Find the composition of the relations
{(1,2),(1,6),(2,4),(3,4),(3,6),(3,8)}
& {(2,u),(4,s),(4,t),(6,t),(8,u)}
Solution:-
{(1,u),(1,t),(3,t),(3,u),(3,s),(2,s),(2,t)}
Q-2
Solution:-
{(a,b),(b,a),(a,c),(b,d),(c,c),(c,d)}
inverse:
{(b,a),(a,b),(c,a),(d,b),(c,c),(d,c)}
Q-3
Solution:-
a. R={(4,7),(5,7),(6,7)}
b. 5R2 false
6R7 True
Find the composition of the relations
{(1,2),(1,6),(2,4),(3,4),(3,6),(3,8)}
& {(2,u),(4,s),(4,t),(6,t),(8,u)}
Solution:-
{(1,u),(1,t),(3,t),(3,u),(3,s),(2,s),(2,t)}
Q-2
Solution:-
{(a,b),(b,a),(a,c),(b,d),(c,c),(c,d)}
inverse:
{(b,a),(a,b),(c,a),(d,b),(c,c),(d,c)}
Q-3
Solution:-
a. R={(4,7),(5,7),(6,7)}
b. 5R2 false
6R7 True
MTH-202 Solution
Q:1
Find the composition of the relations
{(1,2),(1,6),(2,4),(3,4),(3,6),(3,8)}
& {(2,u),(4,s),(4,t),(6,t),(8,u)}
Solution:-
{(1,u),(1,t),(3,t),(3,u),(3,s),(2,s),(2,t)}
Q-2
Solution:-
{(a,b),(b,a),(a,c),(b,d),(c,c),(c,d)}
inverse:
{(b,a),(a,b),(c,a),(d,b),(c,c),(d,c)}
Q-3
Solution:-
a. R={(4,7),(5,7),(6,7)}
b. 5R2 false
6R7 True
Find the composition of the relations
{(1,2),(1,6),(2,4),(3,4),(3,6),(3,8)}
& {(2,u),(4,s),(4,t),(6,t),(8,u)}
Solution:-
{(1,u),(1,t),(3,t),(3,u),(3,s),(2,s),(2,t)}
Q-2
Solution:-
{(a,b),(b,a),(a,c),(b,d),(c,c),(c,d)}
inverse:
{(b,a),(a,b),(c,a),(d,b),(c,c),(d,c)}
Q-3
Solution:-
a. R={(4,7),(5,7),(6,7)}
b. 5R2 false
6R7 True
OOP Assignment Solution
Association is a relationship where all object have their own lifecycle and there is no owner. Let’s take an example of Teacher and Student. Multiple students can associate with single teacher and single student can associate with multiple teachers but there is no ownership between the objects and both have their own lifecycle
Aggregation : It indicates a “whole/part” relationship.
For example a department of the faculty has instructors.
Parts ( instructors ) can still exist even if the whole ( the department ) does not exist.
Composition : Composition is a strong kind of aggregation where the parts cannot exist independently of the “whole” object.
For example “ A human has head ”
Here head cannot be as a single part. Hence it is said to be a composition.
The relations among them are given as,
Aggregation : It indicates a “whole/part” relationship.
For example a department of the faculty has instructors.
Parts ( instructors ) can still exist even if the whole ( the department ) does not exist.
Composition : Composition is a strong kind of aggregation where the parts cannot exist independently of the “whole” object.
For example “ A human has head ”
Here head cannot be as a single part. Hence it is said to be a composition.
The relations among them are given as,
OOP Assignment Solution
Association is a relationship where all object have their own lifecycle and there is no owner. Let’s take an example of Teacher and Student. Multiple students can associate with single teacher and single student can associate with multiple teachers but there is no ownership between the objects and both have their own lifecycle
Aggregation : It indicates a “whole/part” relationship.
For example a department of the faculty has instructors.
Parts ( instructors ) can still exist even if the whole ( the department ) does not exist.
Composition : Composition is a strong kind of aggregation where the parts cannot exist independently of the “whole” object.
For example “ A human has head ”
Here head cannot be as a single part. Hence it is said to be a composition.
The relations among them are given as,
Aggregation : It indicates a “whole/part” relationship.
For example a department of the faculty has instructors.
Parts ( instructors ) can still exist even if the whole ( the department ) does not exist.
Composition : Composition is a strong kind of aggregation where the parts cannot exist independently of the “whole” object.
For example “ A human has head ”
Here head cannot be as a single part. Hence it is said to be a composition.
The relations among them are given as,
Computer Networks
Q-1:
Question No.2
i. If we can extend the LAN then why we need a WAN?
Generally we extend LANs (Local Are Networks) using repeaters. But the maximum number of repeaters that can be used is limited by the Ethernet standard to be four.
In Ethernet LAN, the maximum length of the segment is fixed and the maximum number of nodes in a segment is also fixed for the particular type of Ethernet LAN.
Therefore we cannot indefinitely extend LANs..so we need WAN
ii. How can a bridge know whether to forward frames?
The bridge uses the MAC address in the frame for forwarding. It only forwards the frame from one segment to another segment if it is necessary. The bridges will come to know where to send the frame by learning using the source addresses of the frames.
iii. Can the length of an Ethernet be increased to many segments of 500 meter each merely by adding a repeater to connect each additional segment?
The Ethernet standards have limited the maximum number of repeaters to be used to four.
SO there can only be five segments each with a maximum length of 500m therefore overall length is 2500 meters.
So the length of the Ethernet cannot be increased to many segments of 500 meters each by merely adding a repeater to connect each segment.
iv. How can a computer attach to a network that sends and receives bits faster than the computer’s CPU can handle them?
The data to be sent will be placed in buffer (some space) before and then the data will be transmitted. The data may be present in the buffer till the sender gets an acknowledgement from the receiver saying that the data has been received (like in TCP).
Similarly the data will be received into a buffer first...after that the data from the buffer will be forwarded to CPU for further processing etc
Question No.2
i. If we can extend the LAN then why we need a WAN?
Generally we extend LANs (Local Are Networks) using repeaters. But the maximum number of repeaters that can be used is limited by the Ethernet standard to be four.
In Ethernet LAN, the maximum length of the segment is fixed and the maximum number of nodes in a segment is also fixed for the particular type of Ethernet LAN.
Therefore we cannot indefinitely extend LANs..so we need WAN
ii. How can a bridge know whether to forward frames?
The bridge uses the MAC address in the frame for forwarding. It only forwards the frame from one segment to another segment if it is necessary. The bridges will come to know where to send the frame by learning using the source addresses of the frames.
iii. Can the length of an Ethernet be increased to many segments of 500 meter each merely by adding a repeater to connect each additional segment?
The Ethernet standards have limited the maximum number of repeaters to be used to four.
SO there can only be five segments each with a maximum length of 500m therefore overall length is 2500 meters.
So the length of the Ethernet cannot be increased to many segments of 500 meters each by merely adding a repeater to connect each segment.
iv. How can a computer attach to a network that sends and receives bits faster than the computer’s CPU can handle them?
The data to be sent will be placed in buffer (some space) before and then the data will be transmitted. The data may be present in the buffer till the sender gets an acknowledgement from the receiver saying that the data has been received (like in TCP).
Similarly the data will be received into a buffer first...after that the data from the buffer will be forwarded to CPU for further processing etc
Computer Networks
Q-1:
Question No.2
i. If we can extend the LAN then why we need a WAN?
Generally we extend LANs (Local Are Networks) using repeaters. But the maximum number of repeaters that can be used is limited by the Ethernet standard to be four.
In Ethernet LAN, the maximum length of the segment is fixed and the maximum number of nodes in a segment is also fixed for the particular type of Ethernet LAN.
Therefore we cannot indefinitely extend LANs..so we need WAN
ii. How can a bridge know whether to forward frames?
The bridge uses the MAC address in the frame for forwarding. It only forwards the frame from one segment to another segment if it is necessary. The bridges will come to know where to send the frame by learning using the source addresses of the frames.
iii. Can the length of an Ethernet be increased to many segments of 500 meter each merely by adding a repeater to connect each additional segment?
The Ethernet standards have limited the maximum number of repeaters to be used to four.
SO there can only be five segments each with a maximum length of 500m therefore overall length is 2500 meters.
So the length of the Ethernet cannot be increased to many segments of 500 meters each by merely adding a repeater to connect each segment.
iv. How can a computer attach to a network that sends and receives bits faster than the computer’s CPU can handle them?
The data to be sent will be placed in buffer (some space) before and then the data will be transmitted. The data may be present in the buffer till the sender gets an acknowledgement from the receiver saying that the data has been received (like in TCP).
Similarly the data will be received into a buffer first...after that the data from the buffer will be forwarded to CPU for further processing etc
Question No.2
i. If we can extend the LAN then why we need a WAN?
Generally we extend LANs (Local Are Networks) using repeaters. But the maximum number of repeaters that can be used is limited by the Ethernet standard to be four.
In Ethernet LAN, the maximum length of the segment is fixed and the maximum number of nodes in a segment is also fixed for the particular type of Ethernet LAN.
Therefore we cannot indefinitely extend LANs..so we need WAN
ii. How can a bridge know whether to forward frames?
The bridge uses the MAC address in the frame for forwarding. It only forwards the frame from one segment to another segment if it is necessary. The bridges will come to know where to send the frame by learning using the source addresses of the frames.
iii. Can the length of an Ethernet be increased to many segments of 500 meter each merely by adding a repeater to connect each additional segment?
The Ethernet standards have limited the maximum number of repeaters to be used to four.
SO there can only be five segments each with a maximum length of 500m therefore overall length is 2500 meters.
So the length of the Ethernet cannot be increased to many segments of 500 meters each by merely adding a repeater to connect each segment.
iv. How can a computer attach to a network that sends and receives bits faster than the computer’s CPU can handle them?
The data to be sent will be placed in buffer (some space) before and then the data will be transmitted. The data may be present in the buffer till the sender gets an acknowledgement from the receiver saying that the data has been received (like in TCP).
Similarly the data will be received into a buffer first...after that the data from the buffer will be forwarded to CPU for further processing etc
Data Structure
SYMBOL POSTFIX STACK
3 3
↑ 3 ↑
2 3 2 ↑
+ 3 2 ↑ +
5 3 2↑5 +
* 3 2↑5 + *
4 3 2↑5 4 + *
↑ 3 2↑ 5 4 + *↑
3 3 2↑5 4 3 + *↑
- 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+ -
18 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 -
/ 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9 -/
9 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9/-
INPUT OPERAND1 OPERAND2 VALUE STACK
3 3
2 3 2
↑ 3 2 9 9
5 95
4 9 5 4
3 9 5 4 3
↑ 4 3 64 9 5 64
* 5 64 320 9 320
+ 9 320 329 329
19 329 18
9 329 19 9
/ 18 9 2 329 2
- 329 2 327 327
2)
Indorder:
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,18
Postorder:
2,1,6,7,9,8,5,11,10,12,4,3,18,14,13
3 3
↑ 3 ↑
2 3 2 ↑
+ 3 2 ↑ +
5 3 2↑5 +
* 3 2↑5 + *
4 3 2↑5 4 + *
↑ 3 2↑ 5 4 + *↑
3 3 2↑5 4 3 + *↑
- 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+ -
18 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 -
/ 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9 -/
9 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9/-
INPUT OPERAND1 OPERAND2 VALUE STACK
3 3
2 3 2
↑ 3 2 9 9
5 95
4 9 5 4
3 9 5 4 3
↑ 4 3 64 9 5 64
* 5 64 320 9 320
+ 9 320 329 329
19 329 18
9 329 19 9
/ 18 9 2 329 2
- 329 2 327 327
2)
Indorder:
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,18
Postorder:
2,1,6,7,9,8,5,11,10,12,4,3,18,14,13
Data Structure
SYMBOL POSTFIX STACK
3 3
↑ 3 ↑
2 3 2 ↑
+ 3 2 ↑ +
5 3 2↑5 +
* 3 2↑5 + *
4 3 2↑5 4 + *
↑ 3 2↑ 5 4 + *↑
3 3 2↑5 4 3 + *↑
- 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+ -
18 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 -
/ 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9 -/
9 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9/-
INPUT OPERAND1 OPERAND2 VALUE STACK
3 3
2 3 2
↑ 3 2 9 9
5 95
4 9 5 4
3 9 5 4 3
↑ 4 3 64 9 5 64
* 5 64 320 9 320
+ 9 320 329 329
19 329 18
9 329 19 9
/ 18 9 2 329 2
- 329 2 327 327
2)
Indorder:
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,18
Postorder:
2,1,6,7,9,8,5,11,10,12,4,3,18,14,13
3 3
↑ 3 ↑
2 3 2 ↑
+ 3 2 ↑ +
5 3 2↑5 +
* 3 2↑5 + *
4 3 2↑5 4 + *
↑ 3 2↑ 5 4 + *↑
3 3 2↑5 4 3 + *↑
- 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+ -
18 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 -
/ 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9 -/
9 3 2↑5 4 3↑*+18 9/-
INPUT OPERAND1 OPERAND2 VALUE STACK
3 3
2 3 2
↑ 3 2 9 9
5 95
4 9 5 4
3 9 5 4 3
↑ 4 3 64 9 5 64
* 5 64 320 9 320
+ 9 320 329 329
19 329 18
9 329 19 9
/ 18 9 2 329 2
- 329 2 327 327
2)
Indorder:
1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8,9,10,11,12,13,14,18
Postorder:
2,1,6,7,9,8,5,11,10,12,4,3,18,14,13
Wednesday, April 8, 2009
Introduction to Programming (for MCS)
#include
#include
#include
using namespace std;
void swap(string*, int ,int );
void sort(string*);
int main(){
string strings[5];
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)//taking user input
{
cout<<"Enter String "<
cin>>strings[i];
}
sort(strings);//calling sort function
for(int i=0;i<5;i++){//print names
cout<
}
cout<
}
void swap(string *str, int i, int j)
{
string temp;
temp = str[i];
str[i] = str[j];
str[j] = temp;
}
void sort (string *str)
{
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
for(int j=i+1;j<5;j++)
{
if(str[i].compare(str[j]) >0)
{
swap(str, i, j);
}
}
}
}
#include
#include
using namespace std;
void swap(string*, int ,int );
void sort(string*);
int main(){
string strings[5];
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)//taking user input
{
cout<<"Enter String "<
cin>>strings[i];
}
sort(strings);//calling sort function
for(int i=0;i<5;i++){//print names
cout<
}
cout<
}
void swap(string *str, int i, int j)
{
string temp;
temp = str[i];
str[i] = str[j];
str[j] = temp;
}
void sort (string *str)
{
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
for(int j=i+1;j<5;j++)
{
if(str[i].compare(str[j]) >0)
{
swap(str, i, j);
}
}
}
}
Introduction to Programming (for MCS)
#include
#include
#include
using namespace std;
void swap(string*, int ,int );
void sort(string*);
int main(){
string strings[5];
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)//taking user input
{
cout<<"Enter String "<
cin>>strings[i];
}
sort(strings);//calling sort function
for(int i=0;i<5;i++){//print names
cout<
}
cout<
}
void swap(string *str, int i, int j)
{
string temp;
temp = str[i];
str[i] = str[j];
str[j] = temp;
}
void sort (string *str)
{
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
for(int j=i+1;j<5;j++)
{
if(str[i].compare(str[j]) >0)
{
swap(str, i, j);
}
}
}
}
#include
#include
using namespace std;
void swap(string*, int ,int );
void sort(string*);
int main(){
string strings[5];
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)//taking user input
{
cout<<"Enter String "<
cin>>strings[i];
}
sort(strings);//calling sort function
for(int i=0;i<5;i++){//print names
cout<
}
cout<
}
void swap(string *str, int i, int j)
{
string temp;
temp = str[i];
str[i] = str[j];
str[j] = temp;
}
void sort (string *str)
{
for(int i=0;i<5;i++)
{
for(int j=i+1;j<5;j++)
{
if(str[i].compare(str[j]) >0)
{
swap(str, i, j);
}
}
}
}
INVESTMENT ANALYSIS AND PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT solution
Q Correct Option
1 The security is being overvalued
2 Gross Profit/Net Sales
3 Dividend Discount Model
4 Operating income/Net Sales
5 Liquidity and profitability
6 Price-Earnings Ratio
7 Defensive industry
8 Growth stock
9 Changes in the economy
10 The ability of the company to use its assets to produce profits
11 Financial position of business
12 Goodwill
13 Income statement
14 Operating, investing, and financing activities
15 Low
16 High
17 Marketplace is full of competitors
18 Company
19 Pioneering stage
20 All of given options
1 The security is being overvalued
2 Gross Profit/Net Sales
3 Dividend Discount Model
4 Operating income/Net Sales
5 Liquidity and profitability
6 Price-Earnings Ratio
7 Defensive industry
8 Growth stock
9 Changes in the economy
10 The ability of the company to use its assets to produce profits
11 Financial position of business
12 Goodwill
13 Income statement
14 Operating, investing, and financing activities
15 Low
16 High
17 Marketplace is full of competitors
18 Company
19 Pioneering stage
20 All of given options
INVESTMENT ANALYSIS AND PORTFOLIO MANAGEMENT solution
Q Correct Option
1 The security is being overvalued
2 Gross Profit/Net Sales
3 Dividend Discount Model
4 Operating income/Net Sales
5 Liquidity and profitability
6 Price-Earnings Ratio
7 Defensive industry
8 Growth stock
9 Changes in the economy
10 The ability of the company to use its assets to produce profits
11 Financial position of business
12 Goodwill
13 Income statement
14 Operating, investing, and financing activities
15 Low
16 High
17 Marketplace is full of competitors
18 Company
19 Pioneering stage
20 All of given options
1 The security is being overvalued
2 Gross Profit/Net Sales
3 Dividend Discount Model
4 Operating income/Net Sales
5 Liquidity and profitability
6 Price-Earnings Ratio
7 Defensive industry
8 Growth stock
9 Changes in the economy
10 The ability of the company to use its assets to produce profits
11 Financial position of business
12 Goodwill
13 Income statement
14 Operating, investing, and financing activities
15 Low
16 High
17 Marketplace is full of competitors
18 Company
19 Pioneering stage
20 All of given options
Taxation Managment (Fin-623) Solution
1. If a cultivator used its agricultural produce as raw material in its business what will be the tax treatment of such agriculture produce?
a) Market price of such produce will be deducted as business
expenditure
b) The expenses of cultivation will be deducted as expense from
business
c) The land revenue rent paid will be deducted as expense from
business
d) All of the given options
2. Which of the following is similar to the concept of clubbing of Incomes?
a) Unification only two heads of Income
b) Association of two or more heads of Incomec) Splitting up of only two heads of Income
d) Division of two or more than two heads of Income
3. The process of clubbing of income results in which of the
following?
a) Lower Bracket rate of tax is charged
b) Higher Bracket rate of tax is charged
c) Moderate Bracket rate of tax is chargedd) No change occur due to clubbing
4. What is the tax treatment of the salary of an employee of foreign government but citizen of Pakistan?
a) Exempt form taxb) Wholly Taxable
c) Partly Taxable
d) No Tax treatment given in IT Ordinance 2001
5. Any Pakistan-source income which Pakistan is not permitted to
tax under a tax treaty shall be _______.
a) Wholly Taxable
b) Wholly Exemptc) Partly Exempt
d) Not mention in Ordinance
6. An Individual will be termed as Short Term Resident under
section 50 of the IT Ordinance 2001 on which of the following
condition meet?
a) His period of stay equal to 183 days
b) The employee of Federal Government
c) The citizen of Pakistan
d) Resident solely by reason of the individual’s employment
7. Income chargeable under the head “Income from Business”
derived by a Provincial Government or local authority from a
business carried on outside its jurisdictional area, how it will be
treated under sec (49) IT Ordinance 2001?
a) Wholly taxableb) Wholly exempt
c) Partially exempt
d) Section is silent about it
8. In Income Tax Ordinance 2001 tax concessions meant for which
of the following?
a) Reduction in tax liabilityb) Reduction in tax rate
c) Reduction in taxable Income
d) All of the given options
9. Senior citizen-age 60 years & above where taxable income not
exceeding ________ tax liability reduced by 50% under Part 3
of second schedule.
a) Rs. 200,000
b) Rs. 300,000
c) Rs. 400,000
d) Rs. 500,000
10. The age of senior citizen was 65years and now amended to
60years which of the following finance act substituted 65 to
60years?
a) Finance Act 2005
b) Finance Act 2006
c) Finance Act 2007
d) Finance Act 2008
11. M/s ABC & Co. has been incorporated under Pakistan
Companies Ordinance 1984. However its most of the branched
are operated out of Pakistan? What will be the residential status
of M/s ABC & Co.?
a) Resident Company
b) Non- Resident Company
c) Resident Individual
d) Resident AOP
12. Mr. Joseph is an employee of Foreign Government posted in
Pakistan? What will be the residential status of Mr. Joseph?
a) Resident Individual
b) Non- Resident Individual
c) Resident HUF
d) Resident AOP
13. What is the residential status of Provincial Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Individual
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
14. What is the residential status of Federal Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Person
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
15. For a resident AOP which of the following condition must be
satisfied?
a) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated partly in
Pakistan
b) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly in
Pakistan
c) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly or
partly in Pakistan
d) None of the given options
16. Which of the following days shall be counted as whole day for
the computation of residential status of an individual?
a) A public holiday
b) A day of sick leave
c) Any strike day
d) All of the given options
17. Which part of income is charged to tax of non-resident person
under the income tax ordinance 2001?
a) Pakistani source of income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
18. Rental income shall be Pakistan-source income if it is derived
from:
a) The lease of immovable Property in Pakistan
b) The lease of immovable Property outside Pakistan
c) The lease of immovable Property both in and out of Pakistan
d) None of the given options
19. Any gain arising on the disposal of shares in a non-resident
company belongs to which of the following?
a) Pakistan- source income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
20. What is the tax treatment of losses from the foreign source under section 104 of the ordinance?
a) Wholly taxable
b) Partly Taxable
c) Deductible expenditure
d) None of the given options
a) Market price of such produce will be deducted as business
expenditure
b) The expenses of cultivation will be deducted as expense from
business
c) The land revenue rent paid will be deducted as expense from
business
d) All of the given options
2. Which of the following is similar to the concept of clubbing of Incomes?
a) Unification only two heads of Income
b) Association of two or more heads of Incomec) Splitting up of only two heads of Income
d) Division of two or more than two heads of Income
3. The process of clubbing of income results in which of the
following?
a) Lower Bracket rate of tax is charged
b) Higher Bracket rate of tax is charged
c) Moderate Bracket rate of tax is chargedd) No change occur due to clubbing
4. What is the tax treatment of the salary of an employee of foreign government but citizen of Pakistan?
a) Exempt form taxb) Wholly Taxable
c) Partly Taxable
d) No Tax treatment given in IT Ordinance 2001
5. Any Pakistan-source income which Pakistan is not permitted to
tax under a tax treaty shall be _______.
a) Wholly Taxable
b) Wholly Exemptc) Partly Exempt
d) Not mention in Ordinance
6. An Individual will be termed as Short Term Resident under
section 50 of the IT Ordinance 2001 on which of the following
condition meet?
a) His period of stay equal to 183 days
b) The employee of Federal Government
c) The citizen of Pakistan
d) Resident solely by reason of the individual’s employment
7. Income chargeable under the head “Income from Business”
derived by a Provincial Government or local authority from a
business carried on outside its jurisdictional area, how it will be
treated under sec (49) IT Ordinance 2001?
a) Wholly taxableb) Wholly exempt
c) Partially exempt
d) Section is silent about it
8. In Income Tax Ordinance 2001 tax concessions meant for which
of the following?
a) Reduction in tax liabilityb) Reduction in tax rate
c) Reduction in taxable Income
d) All of the given options
9. Senior citizen-age 60 years & above where taxable income not
exceeding ________ tax liability reduced by 50% under Part 3
of second schedule.
a) Rs. 200,000
b) Rs. 300,000
c) Rs. 400,000
d) Rs. 500,000
10. The age of senior citizen was 65years and now amended to
60years which of the following finance act substituted 65 to
60years?
a) Finance Act 2005
b) Finance Act 2006
c) Finance Act 2007
d) Finance Act 2008
11. M/s ABC & Co. has been incorporated under Pakistan
Companies Ordinance 1984. However its most of the branched
are operated out of Pakistan? What will be the residential status
of M/s ABC & Co.?
a) Resident Company
b) Non- Resident Company
c) Resident Individual
d) Resident AOP
12. Mr. Joseph is an employee of Foreign Government posted in
Pakistan? What will be the residential status of Mr. Joseph?
a) Resident Individual
b) Non- Resident Individual
c) Resident HUF
d) Resident AOP
13. What is the residential status of Provincial Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Individual
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
14. What is the residential status of Federal Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Person
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
15. For a resident AOP which of the following condition must be
satisfied?
a) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated partly in
Pakistan
b) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly in
Pakistan
c) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly or
partly in Pakistan
d) None of the given options
16. Which of the following days shall be counted as whole day for
the computation of residential status of an individual?
a) A public holiday
b) A day of sick leave
c) Any strike day
d) All of the given options
17. Which part of income is charged to tax of non-resident person
under the income tax ordinance 2001?
a) Pakistani source of income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
18. Rental income shall be Pakistan-source income if it is derived
from:
a) The lease of immovable Property in Pakistan
b) The lease of immovable Property outside Pakistan
c) The lease of immovable Property both in and out of Pakistan
d) None of the given options
19. Any gain arising on the disposal of shares in a non-resident
company belongs to which of the following?
a) Pakistan- source income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
20. What is the tax treatment of losses from the foreign source under section 104 of the ordinance?
a) Wholly taxable
b) Partly Taxable
c) Deductible expenditure
d) None of the given options
Taxation Managment (Fin-623) Solution
1. If a cultivator used its agricultural produce as raw material in its business what will be the tax treatment of such agriculture produce?
a) Market price of such produce will be deducted as business
expenditure
b) The expenses of cultivation will be deducted as expense from
business
c) The land revenue rent paid will be deducted as expense from
business
d) All of the given options
2. Which of the following is similar to the concept of clubbing of Incomes?
a) Unification only two heads of Income
b) Association of two or more heads of Incomec) Splitting up of only two heads of Income
d) Division of two or more than two heads of Income
3. The process of clubbing of income results in which of the
following?
a) Lower Bracket rate of tax is charged
b) Higher Bracket rate of tax is charged
c) Moderate Bracket rate of tax is chargedd) No change occur due to clubbing
4. What is the tax treatment of the salary of an employee of foreign government but citizen of Pakistan?
a) Exempt form taxb) Wholly Taxable
c) Partly Taxable
d) No Tax treatment given in IT Ordinance 2001
5. Any Pakistan-source income which Pakistan is not permitted to
tax under a tax treaty shall be _______.
a) Wholly Taxable
b) Wholly Exemptc) Partly Exempt
d) Not mention in Ordinance
6. An Individual will be termed as Short Term Resident under
section 50 of the IT Ordinance 2001 on which of the following
condition meet?
a) His period of stay equal to 183 days
b) The employee of Federal Government
c) The citizen of Pakistan
d) Resident solely by reason of the individual’s employment
7. Income chargeable under the head “Income from Business”
derived by a Provincial Government or local authority from a
business carried on outside its jurisdictional area, how it will be
treated under sec (49) IT Ordinance 2001?
a) Wholly taxableb) Wholly exempt
c) Partially exempt
d) Section is silent about it
8. In Income Tax Ordinance 2001 tax concessions meant for which
of the following?
a) Reduction in tax liabilityb) Reduction in tax rate
c) Reduction in taxable Income
d) All of the given options
9. Senior citizen-age 60 years & above where taxable income not
exceeding ________ tax liability reduced by 50% under Part 3
of second schedule.
a) Rs. 200,000
b) Rs. 300,000
c) Rs. 400,000
d) Rs. 500,000
10. The age of senior citizen was 65years and now amended to
60years which of the following finance act substituted 65 to
60years?
a) Finance Act 2005
b) Finance Act 2006
c) Finance Act 2007
d) Finance Act 2008
11. M/s ABC & Co. has been incorporated under Pakistan
Companies Ordinance 1984. However its most of the branched
are operated out of Pakistan? What will be the residential status
of M/s ABC & Co.?
a) Resident Company
b) Non- Resident Company
c) Resident Individual
d) Resident AOP
12. Mr. Joseph is an employee of Foreign Government posted in
Pakistan? What will be the residential status of Mr. Joseph?
a) Resident Individual
b) Non- Resident Individual
c) Resident HUF
d) Resident AOP
13. What is the residential status of Provincial Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Individual
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
14. What is the residential status of Federal Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Person
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
15. For a resident AOP which of the following condition must be
satisfied?
a) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated partly in
Pakistan
b) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly in
Pakistan
c) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly or
partly in Pakistan
d) None of the given options
16. Which of the following days shall be counted as whole day for
the computation of residential status of an individual?
a) A public holiday
b) A day of sick leave
c) Any strike day
d) All of the given options
17. Which part of income is charged to tax of non-resident person
under the income tax ordinance 2001?
a) Pakistani source of income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
18. Rental income shall be Pakistan-source income if it is derived
from:
a) The lease of immovable Property in Pakistan
b) The lease of immovable Property outside Pakistan
c) The lease of immovable Property both in and out of Pakistan
d) None of the given options
19. Any gain arising on the disposal of shares in a non-resident
company belongs to which of the following?
a) Pakistan- source income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
20. What is the tax treatment of losses from the foreign source under section 104 of the ordinance?
a) Wholly taxable
b) Partly Taxable
c) Deductible expenditure
d) None of the given options
a) Market price of such produce will be deducted as business
expenditure
b) The expenses of cultivation will be deducted as expense from
business
c) The land revenue rent paid will be deducted as expense from
business
d) All of the given options
2. Which of the following is similar to the concept of clubbing of Incomes?
a) Unification only two heads of Income
b) Association of two or more heads of Incomec) Splitting up of only two heads of Income
d) Division of two or more than two heads of Income
3. The process of clubbing of income results in which of the
following?
a) Lower Bracket rate of tax is charged
b) Higher Bracket rate of tax is charged
c) Moderate Bracket rate of tax is chargedd) No change occur due to clubbing
4. What is the tax treatment of the salary of an employee of foreign government but citizen of Pakistan?
a) Exempt form taxb) Wholly Taxable
c) Partly Taxable
d) No Tax treatment given in IT Ordinance 2001
5. Any Pakistan-source income which Pakistan is not permitted to
tax under a tax treaty shall be _______.
a) Wholly Taxable
b) Wholly Exemptc) Partly Exempt
d) Not mention in Ordinance
6. An Individual will be termed as Short Term Resident under
section 50 of the IT Ordinance 2001 on which of the following
condition meet?
a) His period of stay equal to 183 days
b) The employee of Federal Government
c) The citizen of Pakistan
d) Resident solely by reason of the individual’s employment
7. Income chargeable under the head “Income from Business”
derived by a Provincial Government or local authority from a
business carried on outside its jurisdictional area, how it will be
treated under sec (49) IT Ordinance 2001?
a) Wholly taxableb) Wholly exempt
c) Partially exempt
d) Section is silent about it
8. In Income Tax Ordinance 2001 tax concessions meant for which
of the following?
a) Reduction in tax liabilityb) Reduction in tax rate
c) Reduction in taxable Income
d) All of the given options
9. Senior citizen-age 60 years & above where taxable income not
exceeding ________ tax liability reduced by 50% under Part 3
of second schedule.
a) Rs. 200,000
b) Rs. 300,000
c) Rs. 400,000
d) Rs. 500,000
10. The age of senior citizen was 65years and now amended to
60years which of the following finance act substituted 65 to
60years?
a) Finance Act 2005
b) Finance Act 2006
c) Finance Act 2007
d) Finance Act 2008
11. M/s ABC & Co. has been incorporated under Pakistan
Companies Ordinance 1984. However its most of the branched
are operated out of Pakistan? What will be the residential status
of M/s ABC & Co.?
a) Resident Company
b) Non- Resident Company
c) Resident Individual
d) Resident AOP
12. Mr. Joseph is an employee of Foreign Government posted in
Pakistan? What will be the residential status of Mr. Joseph?
a) Resident Individual
b) Non- Resident Individual
c) Resident HUF
d) Resident AOP
13. What is the residential status of Provincial Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Individual
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
14. What is the residential status of Federal Government of
Pakistan?
a) Resident Person
b) Resident Company
c) Resident AOP
d) Resident HUF
15. For a resident AOP which of the following condition must be
satisfied?
a) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated partly in
Pakistan
b) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly in
Pakistan
c) Control and management of affairs of AOP is situated wholly or
partly in Pakistan
d) None of the given options
16. Which of the following days shall be counted as whole day for
the computation of residential status of an individual?
a) A public holiday
b) A day of sick leave
c) Any strike day
d) All of the given options
17. Which part of income is charged to tax of non-resident person
under the income tax ordinance 2001?
a) Pakistani source of income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
18. Rental income shall be Pakistan-source income if it is derived
from:
a) The lease of immovable Property in Pakistan
b) The lease of immovable Property outside Pakistan
c) The lease of immovable Property both in and out of Pakistan
d) None of the given options
19. Any gain arising on the disposal of shares in a non-resident
company belongs to which of the following?
a) Pakistan- source income
b) Foreign source of income
c) Both Pakistan and foreign source of income
d) None of the given option
20. What is the tax treatment of losses from the foreign source under section 104 of the ordinance?
a) Wholly taxable
b) Partly Taxable
c) Deductible expenditure
d) None of the given options